Inspired by recent comments in the Eugene Peterson thread, I feel compelled to ask the following.
I wonder spedifically how one can make the claim that the KJV is the inspired word, but other English versions, based on older manuscripts are not. If one really wants to be precise, can any translation be an exact word for word reperesentation, knowing what we lose in the process of translation with regard to meaning and tense? This KJVO argument baffles me, if you're going to say it is the PRECISE word of God, which many of them will say, how can one escape the key that it is a translation, and is based on manuscripts that are about a millennia newer that what we know of now?