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Ben Vargh | Forum Activity | Posted: Mon, Oct 12 2009 12:28 AM

I am a beginner in Greek Grammar and has bumped upon 'until He comes' in 1 Corinthians 11:26 where the 'comes' is in Subjunctive mood. Daniel B Wallace defines subjunctive as "In general, the subjunctive can be said to represent the verbal action (or state) as uncertain but probable. " Since the Lord's coming is a certainty and many commentators say that this statement is indeed a certainity, I am unable to figure out how they arrived at this conclusion. I am in a country that has little exposure to these things. I hope somebody will be able to kindly guide me around this difficulty.

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Jack Caviness | Forum Activity | Replied: Mon, Oct 12 2009 3:08 AM

Ben

If you read a bit further in Wallace (pg 479), you will find 1 Corinthians 11:26 used as an illustrations of  the use of the "Subjunctive in Indefinite Temporal Clause"

"The subjunctive is frequently used after a temporal adverb (or improper preposition) meaning until (e.g., ἕως, ἄχρι, μέχρι), or after the temporal conjunction ὅταν with the meaning, whenever. It indicates a future contingency from the perspective of the time of the main verb."

Jack

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Ben Vargh | Forum Activity | Replied: Mon, Oct 12 2009 1:29 PM

Jack, that was very kind of you. Thanks a lot. Ben.

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Jack Caviness | Forum Activity | Replied: Mon, Oct 12 2009 2:48 PM

Ben Vargh:

Jack, that was very kind of you. Thanks a lot. Ben.

Glad to be of assistance

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