Why is one word used rather than another?

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John W | Forum Activity | Posted: Fri, Feb 24 2012 12:36 PM

How would you figure out the difference between  "manifest"  in Romans 3:21 compared to "revealed" in Rom 1:17, 18. What is being conveyed in using one over the other. I checked BAGD & LN still isn't real clear to me.

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MJ. Smith | Forum Activity | Replied: Fri, Feb 24 2012 12:43 PM

I would run Bible word studies on the words in Greeks.

Orthodox Bishop Hilarion Alfeyev: "To be a theologian means to have experience of a personal encounter with God through prayer and worship."

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Rosie Perera | Forum Activity | Replied: Fri, Feb 24 2012 12:46 PM

Different Greek words: φανερόω vs. ἀποκαλύπτω, but according to the Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, "Paul uses φανερόω and ἀποκαλύπτω synonymously. This may be seen especially in a comparison of R. 1:17 and 3:21. Only in 1 C. 4:5, an apocryphal quotation (→ VII, 442, 10 ff.), and R. 1:19 do we detect in the usage the sense 'to make visible.' In the other references the main point is revelation in the Gospel. The reflexive is never used; specific things are always revealed. R. 3:21 repeats 1:17, but with the perfect πεφανέρωται for the present ἀποκαλύπτεται. Yet this does not denote a specific time in the past; the reference is to a once and for all: the justification grounded in the Christ event (cf. R. 3:24–26; 1:3 f.) is now a reality for πίστις. The frequent use of φανερόω in 2 C. is surprising (9 times). It occurs in the polemical sections. Paul is perhaps adopting here a term of his opponents.8 He uses it for revelation as this takes place in his preaching (2 C. 2:14; 11:6)9 and indeed his very existence (4:10 f.).10 In spite of the eschatological qualification (cf. 5:10) this revelation is definitive, 5:11."

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