Many who take issue with Jehovah's Witnesses' "New World Translation" of 'theos' in John 1:1c (as, "a god") often miss the point that this is 'a singular anarthrous predicate noun *preceding the verb and subject noun (implied or stated)*' - that is, not just that use of the noun 'theos' in the third clause lacks the Greek definite article.
Quite interestingly, at other places where the syntax is also the same as that found within John 1:1c, it is not uncommon to read where the English indefinite article has been added within most Bibles (either with "a" or "an"). You may wish to examine the following within your own preferred translation(s) of the Bible, that is, to see whether these had actually done so:Mark 6:49 Mark 11:32 John 4:19 John 6:70 John 8:44a John 8:44b John 9:17 John 10:1 John 10:13 John 10:33 John 12:6
Apparently, because of a theologically induced Trinitarian bias, when Bible translators encounter the same Greek grammatical construction as occurs in John 1:1c, many do not follow their own translation guidelines, that is, as are practiced within the above verses.Obviously, there need be more evidence to substantiate such a rendering, as well as to address other issues often raised by such wording. These is just a number of the many points we hope to address within our forthcoming work, "What About John 1:1?"To discover something of its design and progress, you are invited to visit:Good Companion BooksAgape, JohnOneOne.