The NASB doesn't show Φαρισαῖος in the Greek associated with that verse - which explains why it isn't returned in search results
Not sure yet why its not included
EDIT: It seems there is a textual issue here. Metzger says:
10:2 καὶ προσελθόντες Φαρισαῖοι {B}
The chief problem presented by the variant readings involves the presence or absence of the words προσελθόντες (οἱ) Φαρισαῖοι. Did the original text read merely ἐπηρώτων, an impersonal plural (“people asked him” or “he was asked”), and has the reference to the Pharisees come into many witnesses by assimilation to the parallel passage in Matthew (19:3)? Despite the plausibility of such a possibility, the fact that the Matthean passage is not absolutely parallel (προσῆλθον αὐτῷ Φαρισαῖοι) and the widespread and impressive support for the longer reading led a majority of the Committee to retain the words in the text.[Inasmuch as the impersonal plural is a feature of Markan style, the words προσελθόντες Φαρισαῖοι are probably an intrusion from Matthew; if retained at all, they should be enclosed within square brackets. B.M.M. and A.W.]
Bruce Manning Metzger, United Bible Societies, A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament, Second Edition a Companion Volume to the United Bible Societies’ Greek New Testament (4th Rev. Ed.) (London; New York: United Bible Societies, 1994), 88.
But it is strange that the texts on which I thought these translations were based do include the term
Thank you, Graham for your reply. I tend to think that the textual issue is not the answer to the problem here. First, the NASB convention is to put in italics words that are not present in the manuscripts but inserted in the translation or to use a footnote to document a different translational option. There is nothing of the kind in Mk 10:2. Additionally, as you can see below, it is rather strange that this word is tagged to a Strong's number but not to a lemma as other instances are. If there is no lemma, there is no Strong's number either. It would seem that this is a tagging error:
The fact is that the count differs because the RI's Greek differs. Whether or not it should differ is a different question. As I understand it, the underlying Greek was provided to Logos not deduced by Logos. You may report it as a possible error to revint@logos.com.
First, the NASB convention is to put in italics words that are not present in the manuscripts but inserted in the translation or to use a footnote to document a different translational option.
'Jesus' is inserted!
Additionally, as you can see below, it is rather strange that this word is tagged to a Strong's number but not to a lemma as other instances are.
NASB95 has its own Strong's tagging from its Libronix version so this text is not inserted and NASB agrees with NA27/NA28. The same applies to the ESV, NRSV, NIV84
It would seem that this is a tagging error:
An explanation from FL would be in order
Indeed:
Καὶ προσελθόντες Φαρισαῖοι ἐπηρώτων αὐτὸν (NA28)
Some Pharisees came up to Jesus... and began to question Him (NASB95)
