I'm pretty sure this is a case of "we tag it as the publisher publishes it" but I just wanted to voice my opinion. I was reading along and came to John 8:33 in the NKJV and it says "...How can you say, <red letters>You will be made free?</red letters>. some translations do not mark these red, some do. Why should they be marked red? these are not words being spoken by Christ, but the translation of those speaking concerning what Christ said. I find it particularly odd because the KJV does not have the words red while the NKJV does. I just find that a poor choice.
OK. Climbing off my soap box.