Subject of the Hebrew verb "bara"

Graham Criddle
Graham Criddle MVP Posts: 33,164
in Beta Desktop App Forum

It is generally accepted that God is the only subject of the verb "bara" in the Old Testament but this doesn't seem to be matched with how it is tagged as below:

Am I missing something or is there a tagging issue here?

Thanks, Graham 

Comments

  • NB.Mick
    NB.Mick MVP Posts: 16,188

    Graham,

    I don't speak Hebrew, but just going from the English grammar, when 'bara' is used in passive, the grammatical subject of the sentence is the thing that was created, even though it would remain true that God is the only entity that does creating when 'bara' is used (a counterexample would be a pot created by a human potter or so). 

    There are these fancy new things with "experiencer" etc whose name eludes me that should get those things right regardless of the grammar used. 

    Have joy in the Lord! Smile

  • Graham Criddle
    Graham Criddle MVP Posts: 33,164
    https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/813336#Comment_813336

    Hi Mick

    NB.Mick said:

    I don't speak Hebrew, but just going from the English grammar, when 'bara' is used in passive, the grammatical subject of the sentence is the thing that was created, even though it would remain true that God is the only entity that does creating when 'bara' is used (a counterexample would be a pot created by a human potter or so). 

    That makes sense - thanks

    NB.Mick said:

    There are these fancy new things with "experiencer" etc whose name eludes me that should get those things right regardless of the grammar used. 

    "Agent" does absolutely show this

    Thanks again, Graham 

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