Reverse interlinear alignment question in John 18:37
The screenshot below shows that the word "I" in "I am a king" is aligned to ἐγὼ (red line).
But I think the ἐγὼ should be aligned to the "I" in "I was born" that comes later (blue line)
Thoughts?
Comments
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Hi Graham,
At first glance I agreed with you and was going to voice my agreement. However, it may be more a little more complex. I think I have identified part of the reason for the error.
Some ancient manuscripts include ἐγὼ twice and so do older Greek NTs (including the Textus Receptus). More recent versions of the Greek NT have assumed it is an example of scribal dittography. So for example, Scrivener's reads:
βασιλεύς εἰμι ἐγώ. ἐγὼ εἰς τοῦτο γεγέννημαι
(F.H.A. Scrivener, The New Testament in Greek (Logos Research Systems, Inc., 1881; 2008), Jn 18:37).
It looks like the Greek text of the Reverse Interlinear has removed the first ἐγὼ but the interlinear then wrongly (as you say) aligns it with the first verb rather than the second.
So I agree with you but there's a little more to the story!
Colin.
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Graham Criddle said:
Thoughts?
Tend to agree if the critical text used was NA27 as it (and NA28!) show that ἐγὼ follows the full stop; thereby choosing an alignment after rejecting the other (consecutive) ἐγὼ in the TR tradition.
But the choice could be arbitrary. Four other verses of the Gospel use "εἰμι ἐγὼ" for "I am", instead of reading the "I" into the verb.
Dave
===Windows 11 & Android 13
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Thanks Colin & Dave - appreciate the insight and input.
Dave Hooton said:But the choice could be arbitrary. Four other verses of the Gospel use "εἰμι ἐγὼ" for "I am", instead of reading the "I" into the verb.
I came across this when checking statements such as:
But before attempting to deal with that matter, we must first identify this absolute “I am” saying as one of a series of seven that are scattered, like the seven with predicates, throughout John’s Gospel: 4:26; 6:20; 8:24; 8:28; 8:58; 13:19; 18:5, 6, 8—treating the three in ch. 18 as a single saying that is first stated (v. 5) and then twice repeated (vv. 6 and 8). In all but 8:58 (“I am”) and 6:20 (“It is I”), the NRSV translates egō eimi as “I am he,” but with the literal translation “I am” in a footnote.
Richard Bauckham, “Monotheism and Christology in the Gospel of John,” in Contours of Christology in the New Testament (ed. Richard N. Longenecker; McMaster New Testament Studies; Grand Rapids, MI; Cambridge, U.K.: William B. Eerdmans Publishing Company, 2005), 155.
Doing a search for ἐγώ εἰμι in John's Gospel found the reference to John 18:37 which isn't included in the list above and I was trying to track down where the discrepancy was - and it looks like some mis-tagging.
Interestingly, we get the same in John 4:26 where I think the ἐγώ should be tagged as per the red arrow not per the blue one
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Graham Criddle said:
Doing a search for ἐγώ εἰμι in John's Gospel found the reference to John 18:37 which isn't included in the list above
That list is looking for the phrase "ἐγώ εἰμι" which doesn't occur in Jn 18:37. A WITHIN proximity search will find it there but only because the order of words does not matter!
Graham Criddle said:Interestingly, we get the same in John 4:26 where I think the ἐγώ should be tagged as per the red arrow not per the blue one
The NIV 2011 translates it differently to the NIV84 (and ESV, etc) but it still separates the initial "I"--> ἐγώ from the verb. So the alignment is consistent and the second "I" is read from the verb for emphasis i.e. "I am he" instead of "am he".
Dave
===Windows 11 & Android 13
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Dave Hooton said:Graham Criddle said:
Doing a search for ἐγώ εἰμι in John's Gospel found the reference to John 18:37 which isn't included in the list above
That list is looking for the phrase "ἐγώ εἰμι" which doesn't occur in Jn 18:37. A WITHIN proximity search will find it there but only because the order of words does not matter!
True - I was using a "WITHIN search to allow for the word order to be reversed. So maybe I caused my own problem[:$]
Dave Hooton said:The NIV 2011 translates it differently to the NIV84 (and ESV, etc) but it still separates the initial "I"--> ἐγώ from the verb. So the alignment is consistent and the second "I" is read from the verb for emphasis i.e. "I am he" instead of "am he".
That makes sense
Thanks Dave
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