Some Questions on the Vulgate Reverse Interlinear

I open Josh 6 in the Clementine Vulgate.

In verse 5 I run a Bible Word Study on the inflected form "maxima" and I get the wheel with the Hebrew equivalents as expected.

When I run it on the Lexeme "magnus" I get absolutely nothing.

When I run a Bible Word Study on the inflected form "circuite" in verse 3 I should have got a wheel containing Josh 6:3, 7; 18:8; Jer 5:1; 49:3 i.e. סבב, שוט, הלך instead I get the 4 occurrences of "circuit" (a different inflected form).

A BWS for the Lexeme circueō returns nothing.

If I run a Bible Word Study on the inflected form "munita" in verse 1, Ps 30:22 is missing etc.

Almost every search returns imprecise results.

What am I doing wrong?

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Comments

DMB

Ditto for me. My impression is they did some (very) minor hook-up for L7.

But I am working out how to analyze how the latin sat overtop greek/hebrew. The earlier fathers' latin would have worked overtop the LXX; that latin we don't have yet. My guess is Jerome flavored his hebrew translation ... we shall see.

David Knoll

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/840952#Comment_840952

Hieronimus' translation style varies between OT books. The best introduction is to be found in Mulder's "Mikra". Message me on Academia.edu and I can help you "find" it...

The Vetus Latina of which you speak was only preserved fragmentarily and the critical edition is not yet complete. It is a very important witness for the LXX.

Mark Barnes

What am I doing wrong?

There are known issues with BWS and the Vulgate, due to (a) the BWS expecting inflected forms not lemmas; and (b) word-stemming expecting English not Latin forms. I believe they're working on ironing out the problems.

David Knoll

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/841006#Comment_841006

Thanks for clarifying.

Mark Barnes

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/840952#Comment_840952

But I am working out how to analyze how the latin sat overtop greek/hebrew.

It's Hebrew except in the Psalms and the deutero-canonicals, where it's Greek. Here's more on the Psalms: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Latin_Psalters#Versio_Gallicana

DMB

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/841013#Comment_841013

David ... thank you for your offer.

Mark ... yes, hebrew OT. Greek referred to the NT. The dissonance of the two (Jerome's time) provide an analytical base to look at how Jerome would have tried to hold on to the LXX greek, while dealing with a language of 'the east'.

MJ. Smith

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/840952#Comment_840952

Denise - I assume you are familiar with http://www.vetuslatina.org/

Andrew Curtis

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/841006#Comment_841006

Mark,

Thanks for your answers. We are indeed working to iron out the issues with Bible Word Study functionality for the Latin as well as bugs in the Vulgate morph search. Hoping to get the fixes shipped soon!