Hebrew word for "These" question

Scott
Scott Member Posts: 15 ✭✭
edited November 2024 in English Forum

I created a  video here that asks a question on how the DBL puts so much meaning to a word that English translations don't even seem to include. I am sorry in if I am not using this forum correctly. 

https://youtu.be/Rv1S-bYTkKo

Scott J Kruse -  I am the lead Pastor at Rock Church in Fargo ND. The Rock was planted about two years ago. 

Comments

  • Scott
    Scott Member Posts: 15 ✭✭

    Or here is the link

    Scott J Kruse -  I am the lead Pastor at Rock Church in Fargo ND. The Rock was planted about two years ago. 

  • Pete De Bonte
    Pete De Bonte Member Posts: 154 ✭✭
    https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/906228#Comment_906228

    To apply a lesson from Learn to Use…, do you have Louw-Nida? I heard you saying that you clicked on the Strongs number, and didn't see the LN row active in the reverse interlinear line in your video; however, when DBL opened, I did see that it suggested a range of meaning (LN 12.1-12.42). Might it be worth considering which particular LN#/meaning Faithlife's experts attributed to that word in that particular context?

    Btw, posting a video, even if a bit fuzzy, was a good idea (worth a million words? : )

  • Francis
    Francis Member Posts: 3,883 ✭✭✭
    https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/906427#Comment_906427

    Hi Scott,

    The Hebrew sentence starts with we-hayu ha-devarim ha-eleh which means word-for-word, "and they will be" (wehayu) the words (ha-devarim) these (ha-eleh), or in better English "These words shall be". The differences between the syntax of Hebrew and English accounts for the different word order in the NASB with "shall be" appearing later in the sentence. 

    we-hayu is the conjunction we (and) + the verb "to be" in the 3rd person plural. It is completely unrelated as a word to eleh (this/these). The DBL entry that you looked up is the first person of the verb to be "I am/will be" (eyeh). It sortof sound like eleh, but it is not related at all nor is it the form used in Deut 6:6. DBL mentions the theologically significant use of that first person form of the verb "to be" in Ex 3:14 but wanders into theological comment rather than just semantic translation. The references to the comfort and presence have more to do with the general context of Exodus 3:14 than with the verb to be per se. To be can in certain contexts signify presence but does not intrinsically and certainly comfort is not part of its meaning (more an implication in Ex 3:14). As far as I am concerned, this is a bad dictionary entry. 

    I don't mean to discourage you, but I think you need to pick up a bit more Hebrew before you can use it in sermons. Otherwise you can make bad mistakes. 

    Hope this helps.

Categories