Is there anything in the Hebrew that causes/requires Job 40:24 to be phrased as a question? Most English Bibles seem to translate as a question, but I don't see that supported in the text. Exceptions are NKJV & NLT, which pose as a statement.
I have recently dealt with this issue in annotating our Sentence Types and Speech Acts of the Old Testament. I ultimately labelled this an interrogative, but I consider that an educated guess more than anything. For example, based on the Hebrew text, there is also no foundation for the NLT's "no one" or for the NKJV's "though." So, all of the translations are similar in that they are all trying to deal with the logic of how the Hebrew of this verse follows from what precedes.
The NLT's translation seems to me the least defensible. I imagine sometimes concessives (i.e., the "though" of the NKJV) are probably sometimes implied in poetic texts, so maybe the NKJV's translation is plausible. Questions are often indicated by intonation rather than by an overt marker of a question. That's obviously difficult to tell from a written text, but reading this as a question is also plausible. I ultimately went with what seemed to be the consensus on what is certainly a problematic verse. But, considering the difficulty of the text (there is also no consensus on "by his eyes", "in his sight," "when he is on watch," etc.), I think the most anyone can really do here is make an educated guess.
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