OTP "LORD" convention, typo, or mistranslation?

I noted that the word "LORD" (all caps) occurs a certain number of times in pseude/apocryphal writings in OTP (e.g., Pseudo-Philo 21.6). In the example provided, it translates the Latin "Domine". Does anyone know why it is rendered "LORD" and not "Lord" (it is in at least one other translation I found)? I found nothing in introductory matters about this. If you have the print version, can you confirm that this is how it appears there too?

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Justin Gatlin

It does match the printed edition, although I also could find no explanation of the convention.

https://books.google.com/books?id=RU77ekrD_vIC&printsec=frontcover&dq=pseudepigrapha+of+the+old+testament&hl=en&sa=X&ved=0ahUKEwjH5eD8_ZrVAhXq54MKHe-6AbEQ6AEIMDAE#v=onepage&q=%22You%20above%20all%20know%2C%20Lord%2C%20what%20moves%20the%20heart%20of%20the%20sea%22&f=false

Ken McGuire

Unfortunately I do not have the resource provided. Of course, normally in Biblical studies and Theology, "LORD" either in all caps, or Small Caps is a replacement for where the Hebrew text had the Tetragramaton - which was viewed as too holy to pronounce, and so was spoken as Adonai, and translated in LXX as Kyrios and Latin later as you say. My guess is that in having it as "LORD" the translator is denoting that it is referring to the God of Israel who gave his name to Moses as the Tetragramaton...

But it is just a guess.

Justin Gatlin

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/913882#Comment_913882

Ken, you are correct. But since Pseudo-Philo is not in Hebrew, but Latin, it is strange that they use that system. It is used in OTP on some documents, but not others, and is only explicitly mentioned with 2 Enoch.