So maybe by now you've heard that pretty much every English Bible you've encountered (a few very recent ones perhaps excepted) has a mistranslation of the Bible's first sentence. In fact, it isn't even a sentence, actually...it's a dependent clause (or the Hebrew equivalent). The Hebrew, we're told, doesn't say "In the beginning created ':Elohhiym the heavens and the earth." Rather, it says, "WHEN in the beginning God was creating the h & e...", or "In the beginning OF God'S CREATING the h & e...".
Don't you feel small and uneducated? The question is...should you? I've encountered this assertion a number of times over the last decade or so, but until this point, something has always been missing from these "on high" pronouncements. EVIDENCE...or even something attempting to be evidence. Not once have I seen these knowing declarations of "heretofore non-scholarly assumption and ineptitude" per Gen. 1:1 be supported by anything other than a bald "That's the way it is."
In the book I'm reading, Ziony Zevit's What Really Happened in the Garden of Eden? (not available in Logos), Zevit makes this assertion again, but he slathers it with additional assertions, to wit, he insists that your well-known version of Gen. 1:1 is a non-Hebraic construction couched in a Hellenistic and Aristotelian worldview. This worldview is geared toward a Greekish creatio ex nihilo explanation that is deemed unbiblical because it is unsupported by the original Hebrew text. Scary, huh? As Zevit puts it, his translation (the one in bold print above) is "a stricter, non-interpretive translation".
...to which I say, "Bunk." Literally, put up or shut up. I don't consider myself a Hebrew expert, but I do have eyes. When I look at the Hebrew, I don't see anything, whether a word outright or a particle, that allows for these so-called "stricter, non-interpretive" creations, which could be termed "translations out of nothing".
So, my question to the forum is...do you know of anything, in Logos or not, that addresses this topic beyond the level of bare ivory tower pontification? I'm particularly interested in a word-for-word breakdown of the Hebrew that will somehow whittle out a legit explanation for how these extraneous words (like "when" or "of") sprout into existence in this sentence...'cause from where I'm at, it seems a lot like these assertions are ex nihilo.