Running this search yields these results in ESV:

All of the 2 Kings references look good.
However, I don't understand why Jer 50:17 and 50:18 are hits.

In v17, the hit is "the king of Assyria", which Hoshea is not. Perhaps Hoshea is to be included in the group "Israel", since Hosea was a king in Israel?? But if so, then both "Israel" and "him" should be the hits in the verse, not "the king of Israel."
In v18, "the king of Assyria" is the direct object of God's wrath, but it reflects a hit for <Person Hoshea (king)>.
Could someone explain what's going on with tagging here?
Thanks, o' wise ones!