Romans 5 Question

Christian Alexander

I have a question about Romans 5:12. I'm confused about the argument that Augustine misunderstood the verse and the mechanics of the verse. Here's how I read the Greek text: "Because of this just as through one man sin into the world entered and through sin death also thus to all men death passed for that all sinned." 

So the way I understand this is: One man ­=> sin => the world => death => to all men => all sinned => God's wrath => people being brought to God through salvation and repentence. 

We know Paul elsewhere says the wages of sin are death. Why does every Bible translate this as the wages of sin is death since Paul uses no verb in Greek but writes the wages of sin death? I believe Paul is closely connecting sin and death and perhaps in some sense even using them interchangeably, at least in an allegorical way. So Romans 5:12 does seem to support the idea that sin is innate to all men. Now is that before, during, or after their birth? I think it's all three because Paul also says that all creation groans for renewal. The way I interpret that is that when Adam and Eve sinned in Eden, God gave them an escape hatch from eating the tree of life and living forever in sin, in a state of eternal death, by introducing physical death, the door to heaven. 

Am I correct? What are some sources on this topic? Is Romans 5:12 a conclusion of what was presented earlier in the chapter? As an aside, this verse was part of my paper on Augustine, Original Sin, & infant baptism, and that is not what I am asking today. I want to know how this is supposed to be interpreted. 

MJ. Smith

Have you read all the commentaries and journal articles that you have on the passage? The forums are not intended to approve of or disapprove of aternative interpretations.

Christian Alexander

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/1192513#Comment_1192513

Yes some commentaries have been perused in research but they rarely touch on historical matters.

SineNomine

Christian Alexander said:

I want to know how this is supposed to be interpreted. 

In the forums, we can't tell you (or anyone else) how to interpret Scripture. All we can do is to suggest relevant resources.

Is it safe for me to assume that you've already ready Augustine himself on the subject of Romans 5:12? Have you read his contemporaries' thoughts on this passage (e.g., these)?

I also think that the CCHS has a nice treatment of this verse.