John 1:1

Is εἰμί (and ἦν) always stative (contra LSJ, Thayer)? Some deny that the verb ἦν in John 1:1a (viz., ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος) is functioning as a substantive verb.
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Whenever there is disagreement among scholars, there should be disagreement among forum users. Please don't use the forums to get "authoritative" answers. You are welcome to ask how to research it further.
Orthodox Bishop Alfeyev: "To be a theologian means to have experience of a personal encounter with God through prayer and worship."; Orthodox proverb: "We know where the Church is, we do not know where it is not."
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I wanted to find the methodology of researching this.
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Using the Grammar and Commentary guide sections on the bible passage John 1:1 should give you everything you need. I would use the methods of informal conductive logic and linguistic study of grammar and syntax.
Orthodox Bishop Alfeyev: "To be a theologian means to have experience of a personal encounter with God through prayer and worship."; Orthodox proverb: "We know where the Church is, we do not know where it is not."
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