Greek Aorist Subjunctive

Can you tell me if this is correct?

Aorist indicative
The aorist does not describe a tense, but an aspect - namely, a punctual action. However, the aorist indicative is mostly used for the past tense. Therefore, it usually describes a point in the past that has occurred completely in itself, even if its effect continues into the present. This does not mean that something starts at a point in the past, but that something has arrived at a point in the past, that is completed, even if the result is still present. This means that the verb παρῆλθεν in 2 Corinthians 5:17 means that the old human nature has gone away once and for all in the past.

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Dave Hooton

PaNo

We should not debate issues of theology in the forums, which means that we will not advise you about the meaning of 2 Cor 5:17 though others may comment on the use of "aorist indicative".

Christian Alexander

Read this https://digitalcommons.liberty.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1182&context=sor_fac_pubs

PaNo

Thank you for your inspiration! I did not want to alienate the purpose of the forum.

xnman

3 things that will help in understanding any passage:

1. Who is talking? In the case of 2Co 5:17, it is Paul talking.

2. Whom are they talking to? Paul is talking to Christians in Corinth.

3. What are they talking about (context)? Paul is talking about and reminding the Christians at Corinth, that if the Spirit is living in you, then you will have "spiritual life" because of the Spirit who live in you.

Basically, Paul is reminding them of how they live now. He is not talking about the past and how they become Christians. Christians have the Spirit.

imho... [8-|]

Dave Hooton

3 things that will help in understanding any passage:

Each point (up to the last ?) is within the Guidelines, but the rest is always IMHO and that is what you should not be doing.

Keep Smiling 4 Jesus :)

Aorist indicative

Bible Search for lemma.g:παρέρχομαι@VA INTERSECTS morph.h:Va in LXX Swete finds 78 results where aorist tense translates a Hebrew QAL stem. Bible Search for lemma.g:παρέρχομαι@VA finds 108 results.

The aorist does not describe a tense, but an aspect - namely, a punctual action.

aorist — The aorist verb tense is used by the writer to present the action of a verb as a “snapshot” event. The verb’s action is portrayed simply and in summary fashion without respect to any process. In the indicative mood, the aorist usually denotes past time, while an aorist participle usually refers to antecedent time with respect to the main verb. Outside the indicative and the participle, the aorist does not indicate time.

Michael S. Heiser and Vincent M. Setterholm, Glossary of Morpho-Syntactic Database Terminology (Lexham Press, 2013; 2013).

qal — In Biblical Hebrew, ‘stem’ refers to the relationship of the verb’s subject to the action of the verb. That is, stems convey grammatical ‘voice’ relationships. The qal is the unmarked stem; it has no nuanced meaning per se. See GKC §§43-50; IBHS §22; BHRG §16.2; J.-M. §§41-50.

Michael S. Heiser and Vincent M. Setterholm, Glossary of Morpho-Syntactic Database Terminology (Lexham Press, 2013; 2013).

Keep Smiling [:)]

David Thomas

Can you tell me if this is correct?

Aorist indicative

Scholars disagree. I have had Greek professors (IN THE SAME SCHOOL) say aorist is/is not linguistically embedded with time.

I encourage you to continue to explore. The verse you are questioning starts with a verbless clause, then uses an aorist indicative (not subjunctive as the title of this thread suggests), then a perfect indicative. What level of condition exists in the first clause? Why does Paul change tense between παρῆλθεν and γέγονεν