Scribes and biblical texts

I'm examining how scribes altered biblical texts. Is it conceivable that certain scribes, as shown by the pericope of 1 Corinthians 15:49, converted the hortatory ("let us bear") to the future ("we will bear") to make it easier to read or to match the verb tense to the prevalent future?

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DMB

Conceivable, sure. Alterred as in 'evidence of' .... need some witnesses. All you have are old manuscripts. And chatty scholars ... who sell their opinions.

MJ. Smith

Is it conceivable that certain scribes

Hypotheticals are very difficult to deal with in an academic manner when relating to texts. Think of "conceivable" as merely reflecting how closed/biased or how open/flexible the mind doing the conceiving is. However, with counterfactuals you can actually have a discussion e.g. "what would it mean if certain scribes altered the text" ... it has implications such as their either not believing the text was divinely inspired, or that the text was inspired word-by-word; it has implications such as their expectation that the text be primary read aloud; it could have implications of scribes as grammatical police not believing a divinely inspired text could have a grammatical error (God is perfect) [that is not perfect tense, however] and therefore positing an error on the part of the scribe that preceding them. . . .

Dave Hooton

Is it conceivable that certain scribes, as shown by the pericope of 1 Corinthians 15:49, converted the hortatory ("let us bear") to the future ("we will bear") to make it easier to read or to match the verb tense to the prevalent future?

Read the (extensive) NET bible note on this.