A question about Leviticus 2:3

The rest of the grain offering shall be Aaron’s and his sons. It is most holy of the offerings to the LORD made by fire. Leviticus 2:3

My question is what the "It" refers to? Does it refer to the rest of the grain offering or the offering that has been burnt by Aaron's sons?

Thank you

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Beloved Amodeo

The rest of the grain offering shall be Aaron’s and his sons. It is most holy of the offerings to the LORD

cp Lev 2.10. This cross reference says it plain.

NB.Mick

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/1266667#Comment_1266667

I think 2:10 is equally clear/unclear as 2:3

Beloved Amodeo

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/1266747#Comment_1266747

I think 2:10 is equally clear/unclear as 2:3

The irony of your assertion tends toward the comic. Was this intentional?

John

The rest of the grain offering shall be Aaron’s and his sons. It is most holy of the offerings to the LORD made by fire. Leviticus 2:3

My question is what the "It" refers to? Does it refer to the rest of the grain offering or the offering that has been burnt by Aaron's sons?

Thank you

I deducted that your post is NKJV which is a very literal translation, which is especially good for studying. But sometimes the English can be coarse and hard to follow. In those cases it helps to consult a more "easy reading English" translation (just for reference).

My choices would normally be NIV or NLT.

But in this verse the CSB seems to really simplify the meaning:

"But the rest of the grain offering will belong to Aaron and his sons; it is the holiest part of the food offerings to the Lord." - Christian Standard Bible (Le 2:3). (2020). Holman Bible Publishers.

John

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/1266667#Comment_1266667

cp Lev 2.10. This cross reference says it plain.

I believe the OP is reading in the NKJV, and in that translation, verses 3 and 10 after the first few words read exactly the same.

Beloved Amodeo

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/1266758#Comment_1266758

cp Lev 2.10. This cross reference says it plain.

I believe the OP is reading in the NKJV, and in that translation, verses 3 and 10 after the first few words read exactly the same.

I failed to consider this. I use the NRSV. Thanks for your help; this is a lesson I will remember.