I am studying the signs in John's Gospel.
Roberson explains this as the second sign in Cana, but Jesus performed many in Jerusalem: The second sign that (δευτερον σημειον [deuteron sēmeion]). No article, simply predicate accusative, “This again a second sign did Jesus having come out of Judea into Galilee.” The first one was also in Cana (2:1ff.), but many were wrought in Jerusalem also (2:23).
Robertson, A. T. (1933). Word Pictures in the New Testament (Jn 4:54). Nashville, TN: Broadman Press.
B.H. Bryant writes the same thing: Since John 2:23 and 4:45 mentioned more than two miracles done by Jesus, this healing of the official’s son could not be accurately called Jesus’ second miraculous sign; so say several commentators. This is to overlook the contents of these several statements about miracles by Jesus. John meant here “the second miraculous sign that Jesus performed in Cana.”
Bryant, B. H., & Krause, M. S. (1998). John (Jn 4:54). Joplin, MO: College Press Pub. Co.
How can we understand the use of sign in John's Gospel? The Gospel of John appears to use "σημεῖον" (= sign) in the sense of "miraculous sign". Several versions say this explicitly but I do not get it because Jesus did several signs in Jerusalem. Why did John not use the more common word for miracle or marvel, but rather "sign/omen/portent"? Moreover, why does he only document seven signs and miracles prior to Jesus' execution? Based on some of the other information from commentaries, I think that John employed this technique to give his Gospel a stronger literary structure and form. Was this commonplace in the Jewish times?
Jesus' seven "signs" includes:
- Turns water to wine (John 2:1-11)
- Heals a Royal official’s son (John 4:43-54)
- Heals a disabled man at Bethesda pool (John 5:1-47)
- Feeds ~20,000 people (John 6:1-15)
- Walks on Water (John 6:16-24)
- Heals a blind man (John 9 & 10)
- Resurrects Lazarus (John 11:1-57)
Donald Guthrie, “The Importance of Signs in the Fourth Gospel,” Vox Evangelica 5 (1967): 72-83.