The BH PN Jeroboam (1 Kings 11:26, etc.):
The mss transliteration.(with adjustments for diacritics) is yA-rob-(Am while the lemma transliteration is yA-rAb-(Am. [Although the latter seems contrary to Masoretic biblical Hebrew syllable structure which prefers a short vowel in a closed, unaccented syllable; and the Logos pronunciation for the lemma in the Exegetical Guide renders the proposed root form as if it were identical to the mss vocalization, short o, in keeping with Greek renderings.]
And this is replicated in numerous places in Logos as well as in multiple Lexham resources.
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Was Logos adapted to reflect Lexham resources or vice-versa?
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Is the representation of the lemma with a long A vowel intended to represent a preference for any one of the possible roots (yrb, ryb, rbb, rbh)? Actually, I would have been expecting an I-class theme vowel for some of these or an O-class imperfect theme for others; not sure which one would have an A-class unless possibly as perfect of yrb [and then a short a, rather than long vowel, having the accent]? Thoughts?
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What is the recommended process for a basic Logos user when seeing such a differentiation? Pronounce the purported lemma as written in transliteration, or go with that given by the pronunciation guide/speaker? Or should one assume that the logos pronunciation reader merely gives the pronunciation of the mss vocalization at all times although linked to the proposed lemma in the exegetical guide? [This seems unlikely since the very next word-form he pronounces bEn, the root, versus ben-, the mss form.] Or attribute an error or specific dialect to the pronunciation reader? Or insist the root derives particularly from only one of several possible roots and/or based on a particular historical linguistics reconstruction, and how would they know which if scholars can't agree? Or something else?
Any responses welcomed.