Why are the names of cities in ancient Greek almost always plural? See John 10:22 UBS5 Ἐγένετο τότε τὰ ἐγκαίνια ἐν τοῖς Ἱεροσολύμοις, χειμὼν ἦν Some lexicons say the term in John 10:22 "Jerusalem" is a predecessor of semitic language. Also is their any basis in biblical Greek for all city names to be in feminine form?