Why does the Lexham English Bible maintain the singular "she" in both part of 1 Timothy 2:15 when the Greek in 2:15 switches from "she" to "they" ("she will be saved... if they continue....")? This is especially questionable now that the LEB is tied to the new SBLGNT as an interlinear and uses the SBLGNT as its textual basis. The changes from plural (2:9 "women") to singular (2:11 "woman" --> 2:15a "she") and back to plural (2:15b "they") in 1 Timothy 2:9-15 is part of the complexity of this passage, and I don't think a translation should obscure that.
9 Likewise also the women should adorn themselves in appropriate clothing, with modesty and self-control, not with braided hair and gold jewelry or pearls or expensive clothing, 10 but with good deeds which are fitting for women who profess godliness. 11 A woman must learn in quietness with all submission. 12 But I do not permit a woman to teach or to exercise authority over a man, but ⌊to remain quiet⌋ a. 13 For Adam was formed first, then Eve, 14 and Adam was not deceived, but the woman, because she* was deceived, came into transgression. 15 But she will be saved through the bearing of children, if she [PLURAL IN THE GREEK] continues in faith and love and holiness with self-control.
