Jude appears to quote 1 Enoch and attributes it to Enoch as "prophecy." Did Jude consider this pseudepigraphal book to be authentic prophecy? Other questions include:
- Is Jude quoting 1 Enoch or just alluding to an Enochian tradition?
- How did first-century Jews and early Christians view Enochian literature, and how might this inform Jude’s appeal to it here?
- If he’s quoting it, is Jude treating 1 Enoch as Scripture? In other words, does this imply that Jude thinks 1 Enoch is inspired or even canonical?
- And if 1 Enoch isn’t canonical, does Jude’s use of it create problems for Jude’s own authority and canonicity?
- Further, did Jude believe the historical Enoch actually spoke these words, when in fact we know them to be pseudepigraphal? And, if so, does this mean Jude was in error here?
Wes Huff joins me on What in the Word? to discuss.
What do you make of Jude's use of 1 Enoch?
