Currently I'm not into Greek and may never be. So, I bring my case here for help.
I am in discussion on Romans 1: 26-28.
I take the verses for what they say from the King James Bible. But I have someone telling me that my interpretetion is wrong, and that in Greek context, the verses pertain to temple worship only, that it' doesn't pertain to the real love of men to men.
His example: They mention nothing of the Ero love or Venus love that two people can share. He, therefore, says that the verses pertain to temple worshiping according to Greek context.
He is defending homosexuality love
I need help with this one and would appreciate anyone with some Greek knowledge to let me know if he is right or wrong on the context.
Thanks for your time.
May Christ be with you all.