Shouldn't the morphology of the KJV be the same as the morphology of The NT in Greek (Scrivener 1881). In John 4:14, the greek word διψάω is parsed as VFAI in the KJV but as VAAS in Scrivener??
Shouldn't the morphology of the KJV be the same as the morphology of The NT in Greek (Scrivener 1881).
Not necessarily - they would need to translate the same base Greek text and make the same choices between homographic forms and use the same terms for morphological analysis to always agree.
From forum post => KJV Manuscripts? anticipated match between KJV and Scrivener 1881. Found Scrivener 1881 has a footnote with alternate rendering. Appears AV 1873 resource has a morphological tagging typo:
Keep Smiling [:)]
Since the KJV interlinear is based on the Scrivener 1881 Greek NT, doesn't the following two pictures show that there is a morphology typo in the KJV for διψήσῃ in John 4:14?
Yes. All the RI's use VFAI3S in John 4:14; the same as the "Critical text" Greek bibles (NA27, UBS4, LGNTI, etc). The Greek TR bibles use VAAS in Jn 4:14 and 6:35 but the TR-based Reverse Interlinears only use it in Jn 6:35.
Report this in an Email to revint@logos.com, citing this thread.
Note: Greek TR = Textus Receptus bibles include Scrivener 1881, Scrivener 1894, Elzevir 1624, Byzantine Textform 2005
TR-based RI's are Cambridge Paragraph, KJV and NKJV
