Hi amigos:
Since the vowels in the Hebrew text are late onset, I wonder if there are discussions about whether these vowels caused altered sense of a passage. Just wonder. Thank you so much.
How does the incorporation of vowels could alter the Hebrew text? As a rookie in the study of biblical languages, this topic may not be important, anyone can anyone help me to decide if it is? [*-)]
I'm pretty much a rookie at this too, but my understanding from only one year of Hebrew in seminary is that the vowels are "understood" from the unpointed text. Just as we can pretty much read many English sentences without the vowels: jst s w cn prtty mch rd mny nglsh sntncs wtht th vwls. The vowel pointing just added in what was already known from the tradition of reading the text aloud. Of course there would have been words that could be read in more than one way depending on what vowels you put in (just as in English: is "br" bar, bear, bore, beer, bier, bare, boar, or burr? though English probably has more possibilities than Hebrew does), but since the text had been read aloud for generations everyone knew what the "correct" reading was so there shouldn't have been much controversy putting the vowels in. Someone else who knows about the Masoretic tradition might know more about this, though. I suspect there are/were some disputed texts that were due to ambiguity in the vowels. This is all part of the realm of textual criticism.
How does the incorporation of vowels could alter the Hebrew text? As a rookie in the study of biblical languages, this topic may not be important, anyone can anyone help me to decide if it is?
Yes, vocalization can often determine the text, and quite often the Greek Septuagint demonstrates that the text text was read otherwise. Our Tiberian vowel points date some six or seven hundred years later than the Septuagint. The solution is to learn Hebrew well enough to read without the vowel points, so that you can decide for yourself what vocalizations you think should be made. Most of the time, however, there is little disagreement.
While replicating Hebrew lemma searches for a variety of forum discussions, have noticed many homographs for words that sound alike, but typically have different meanings. Personally bit puzzled about amount of homograph tagging (e.g. drop down list for h:sar has many entries and h:hrs has 10 homographs)
Keep Smiling [:)]
I really appreciate your time. I have received some informal classes in Hebrew. This year I hope to begin a formal courses in a Bible Seminary.So I was wondering if there is a Hebrew text without vowels.
At this point, I wonder if even the morphological search tools may be misguided and give inaccurate results. For example, I was told that the term (חדשׁ) in Jeremiah 31.31, should be translated as "renewed"" rather than "new." When I tried to find חדשׁ at Logos, I found that some times I can do the search using morphological tools, like Andersen-Forbes, but sometimes only get active Greek Logos Morphology, (waht control this?) with these results:
How do I interpret this? On what hebrew text should I look for all occurrences of חדשׁ and how it was translated? Well, don't know if it's too much for me to begin a study. Greetings and thanks for your contributions.
