I'm trying to understand the tagging scheme of the Lexham SGNT. I think I understand they focus more on function rather than form. However, I can't figure out why the following λίθῳ is not tagged as the object of the prep. ἐπὶ. Any enlightenment?
Gary,
If I'm understanding you correctly, it is. In the bottom screen shot, it is marked as a prepositional object. In the top screen shot, its syntactic force is "prepositional object." Am I misunderstanding your question?
But notice in the bottom screenshot, λίθῳ is not in a phrase with ἐπὶ. If you do a search for a prepositional phrase which begins with ἐπὶ and has a dative object, you won't find this verse. Is this the way this resource should work?
Gotcha! I missed that. No, that appears to be a typo. It is listed as being contained in the relative clause instead of the prepositional phrase.
Here's another one that seems to be mislabeled -- wondering if I am not understanding the methodology behind the analysis. Notice in this one that even the prep isn't listed as being in a prep phrase.
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