Polarity in Clause Search

I am trying to wrap my mind around this seemingly simple concept. The example below doesn't make sense to me:

The second listed reference is Jesus' rebuke of Peter "Get behind me Satan...". Why would this come up with Positive polarity rather than Negative?

Find more posts tagged with

Comments

Ryan Gano (Logos)

Clause polarity is based on grammar rather than moral implications.

My understanding (from a decidedly non-English major perspective) is:
In your exact case this could be written as "Do get behind me Satan" so it is positive.
It would be negative only if it was negated grammatically (Ephesians 4:27 - "and give no opportunity to the devil.")

I hope this clears things up (rather than muddying the water).

Ryan

Mark Smith

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/421672#Comment_421672

It would be negative only if it was negated grammatically (Ephesians 4:27 - "and give no opportunity to the devil.")

OK. I understand that better.

MJ. Smith

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/421672#Comment_421672

Yes, Ryan, that corresponds to the response I got earlier from either Bradley, Rick or Vincent.