Speaker label in James 4:5

Graham Criddle

As per the screenshot below, the allusion in verse 5 is taken to be to the Pentateuch

After looking at a couple of commentaries, there is real debate as to what this means and what is referred to.

Interesting to understand how determinations of what the speaker label should point to are made in cases like these

Thanks, Graham

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David Taylor, Jr.

My guess is that the references in the OT talking about God being jealous come from the books of Moses. Obviously this is not a direct quote from the OT, but my guess is that is where they are coming from on this one.

Graham Criddle

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/432396#Comment_432396

My guess is that the references in the OT talking about God being jealous come from the books of Moses. Obviously this is not a direct quote from the OT, but my guess is that is where they are coming from on this one.

Yes, but there is significant debate over this question.

Some commentators favour Gen 6 or Exodus 20 while others refer to Proverbs.

Hence my question as to how Logos determines how to tag in these types of situations.

David Taylor, Jr.

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/432422#Comment_432422

My guess is that the references in the OT talking about God being jealous come from the books of Moses. Obviously this is not a direct quote from the OT, but my guess is that is where they are coming from on this one.

Yes, but there is significant debate over this question.

Some commentators favour Gen 6 or Exodus 20 while others refer to Proverbs.

Hence my question as to how Logos determines how to tag in these types of situations.

I do see the very next speaker label attributes Proverbs as well. I too would like to know more about how they determine the labels.

Graham Criddle

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/432426#Comment_432426

I do see the very next speaker label attributes Proverbs as well.

Yes, but there seems to be general agreement that this is a quotation from Proverbs 3:34. Cross-reference indicators in the NIV - for example - point to this verse as well.

I too would like to know more about how they determine the labels.

[Y]

Annie O'Connor

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/432428#Comment_432428

In places like this where the author is/seems to be citing a third-party quote, the speaker or source is determined based on:

1. The attribution in the text

2. The citation provided in a footnote and/or separate resource

3. a. Where 1 and 2 give different conclusions, both should be included.

b. Where 1 and 2 provide no conclusion but provide a majority probability/possibility, and inclusive referent related to that probability should be named.

c. Where 1 and 2 provide no information at all, no referent should be specified.

James 4:5 falls under 3.b., where commentaries offering a possible source strongly favor origins in the Pentateuch. (Gen 6 or Ex 20.), thus an inclusive referent for those sources was named.

Graham Criddle

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/432674#Comment_432674

In places like this where the author is/seems to be citing a third-party quote, the speaker or source is determined based on:

1. The attribution in the text

2. The citation provided in a footnote and/or separate resource

3. a. Where 1 and 2 give different conclusions, both should be included.

b. Where 1 and 2 provide no conclusion but provide a majority probability/possibility, and inclusive referent related to that probability should be named.

c. Where 1 and 2 provide no information at all, no referent should be specified.

James 4:5 falls under 3.b., where commentaries offering a possible source strongly favor origins in the Pentateuch. (Gen 6 or Ex 20.), thus an inclusive referent for those sources was named.

Hi Annie

Many thanks for this detailed and clear response. It is most helpful and insightful.

Appreciated, Graham

David Taylor, Jr.

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/432677#Comment_432677

Yes thank you very much! That was very detailed and informative!

sal

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/432674#Comment_432674

I am confused about some of the speaker label descriptions. For instance in Acts 2:25–28 Peter credits David as saying:

“For David says concerning him, “ ‘I saw the Lord always before me, for he is at my right hand that I may not be shaken; therefore my heart was glad, and my tongue rejoiced; my flesh also will dwell in hope. For you will not abandon my soul to Hades, or let your Holy One see corruption. You have made known to me the paths of life; you will make me full of gladness with your presence.’” (Acts 2:25–28, ESV)

But the speaker label description states: "Psalmist (Davidic) — the person or people who wrote the psalms associated with David."

The wording is misleading IMO. It seems to me the speaker label should say: "Psalmist (Davidic) — David or the persons associated with David who wrote the psalms".

The current wording makes it appear that David may not have composed any of the Psalms attributed to him, and this description does not seem to follow guideline #1 above.