Person tag in 1 John 1:1

Why is the person tag in 1 John 1:1 for ἀκηκόαμε, ἑωράκαμεν, etc. labeled "John", when they are 1st person plural verbs (meaning "we")?

It probably refers to the apostles, although it might be debated. It is plural, so it has to be more than simply John.

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Dave Hooton

This is another minefield of interpretation. Why are Verbs being tagged anyway ("we" is supplied for translation, but a Greek NT like LGNTI is also tagged). The pronoun "our" is surely sufficient. And the pronoun "which"/"what" is tagged as well (with Jesus!).

Verse 2-3 - why are "testify"/"proclaim"/"manifest" tagged?

Harry Hahne

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/437160#Comment_437160

This is another minefield of interpretation

All tagging of referents to pronouns are interpretive. Ideally, I would like to see alternative person/thing tags to acknowledge instances where there are multiple scholarly viewpoints. The "we" in all of these verbs is debatable as the the antecedent to the relative pronoun.

Why are Verbs being tagged anyway

I am sure you know this, but the "person" in a Greek verb ending is equivalent functionally to a pronoun in English. So I think it is helpful for them to tag the referent of a finite verb.

the pronoun "which"/"what" is tagged as well (with Jesus!).

In Greek this is a relative pronoun that refers to "the word of life" (v. 3). So I would expect them to tag it as "Jesus". Of course, some commentators believe this is a reference to the Gospel.

Dave Hooton

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/437221#Comment_437221

I am sure you know this, but the "person" in a Greek verb ending is equivalent functionally to a pronoun in English. So I think it is helpful for them to tag the referent of a finite verb.

I thought only pronouns were tagged.

1 Jn 1.9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins.

underline has a referent

bold does not have a referent

forgive refers to God - still weird to see a verb as a referent.