Relationship of ἐπί

I am having a hard time finding in my library the reason why "epi" in Revelation 11:6 is translated "over" when it is connected to a genitive noun water. According to my lexicon

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ἐπί preposition with a basic meaning on, but with a wide range of meanings according to the context; I. with the genitive emphasizing contact; (1) in answer to "where?" on (LU 2.14);

Friberg, T., Friberg, B., & Miller, N. F. (2000). Vol. 4: Analytical lexicon of the Greek New Testament. Baker's Greek New Testament Library (162). Grand Rapids, MI: Baker Books.

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III. with the accusative emphasizing motion or direction;

Friberg, T., Friberg, B., & Miller, N. F. (2000). Vol. 4: Analytical lexicon of the Greek New Testament. Baker's Greek New Testament Library (162). Grand Rapids, MI: Baker Books.

Now the verb in this passage is acc. however, I do not believe that changes the way the preposition is translated. What books would be helpful for me to further my research. Epi, is such a simple word, but I am having a hard time differentiating between the translation "on" or "over"

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Rich DeRuiter

I am having a hard time finding in my library the reason why "epi" in Revelation 11:6 is translated "over" when it is connected to a genitive noun water.

I'm no Greek scholar by any means. However, I did find a similar construction in Rev. 14:18, and Rev. 20:6. In those two cases, as here, it is difficult to make sense of a mere locative reference - that is it answers more than merely the question 'where' (which is typical of epi).

I restricted my search to include the lemmas exo (have) exousia (power) and epi (on/upon, over). Most of the time this construction (have authority + epi clause) with the genitive carries the sense of "on/upon," and with the accusative has the sense of "over." But in the case of Rev. 11:6, and the other two I noted, the sense of "over" fits the context better.

Also, I've not yet found a translation that translates it as "on" in this verse. Considering the wide variety of scholarship that represents, this fact alone should make one very hesitant; how many scholars, over how many centuries, representing how many translation philosophies have to be wrong for you to be right?

My conclusion is that at least for John, the way is a legitimate way of translating the phrase.

The next logical step would be to construct a syntax search for epi followed by a genitive noun/phrase. I'll leave that to you, if you want to pursue it.

George Somsel

I am having a hard time finding in my library the reason why "epi" in Revelation 11:6 is translated "over" when it is connected to a genitive noun water. According to my lexicon

You need to get a better lexicon. Settle for nothing less than BDAG.

⑨ marker of power, authority, control of or over someone or someth., over

ⓐ
w. gen. (Hdt. 5, 109 al.; Mitt-Wilck. I/1, 124, 1=BGU 1120, 1 [5 b.c.]

w. gen. (Hdt. 5, 109 al.; Mitt-Wilck. I/1, 124, 1=BGU 1120, 1 [5 b.c.]
w. gen. (Hdt. 5, 109 al.; Mitt-Wilck. I/1, 124, 1=BGU 1120, 1 [5 b.c.]
πρωτάρχῳ ἐ. τοῦ κριτηρίου; 287, 1; LXX; AscIs 2:5 τοῦ ἐ. τῶν πραγματε[ι] ῶν=Denis p. 109) βασιλεύειν ἐ. τινος (Judg 9:8, 10; 1 Km 8:7) Rv 5:10. ἔχειν βασιλείαν ἐ. τῶν βασιλέων 17:18. ἐξουσίαν ἔχειν ἐ. τινος have power over someone 20:6. διδόναι ἐξουσίαν ἐ. τινος 2:26. καθιστάναι τινὰ ἐ. τινος set someone over, put someone in charge, of someth. or someone (Pla., Rep. 5, 460b; Demosth. 18, 118; Gen 39:4f; 1 Macc 6:14; 10:37; 2 Macc 12:20 al.; EpArist 281; τεταγμένος En 20:5) Mt 24:45; Lk 12:42; Ac 6:3. εἶναι ἐ. τινος (Synes., Ep. 79 p. 224d; Tob 1:22; Jdth 14:13; 1 Macc 10:69) ὸ̔ς ἦν ἐ. πάσης τῆς γάζης αὐτῆς who was in charge of all her treasure 8:27. Of God ὁ ὢν ἐ. πάντων (Apollonius of Tyana [I a.d.] in Eus., PE 4, 13) Ro 9:5; cp. Eph 4:6. ὁ ἐ. τινος w. ὤν to be supplied (Demosth. 18, 247 al.; Diod S 13, 47, 6; Plut., Pyrrh. 385 [5, 7], Aemil. Paul. 267 [23, 6]; PTebt 5, 88 [118 b.c.] ὁ ἐ. τ. προσόδων; 1 Macc 6:28; 2 Macc 3:7; 3 Macc 6:30 al.; EpArist 110; 174) ὁ ἐ. τοῦ κοιτῶνος the chamberlain Ac 12:20.
Note that this is the 9th definition. Don't take the 1st one you come across or simply pick the one that seems to offer the manner in which you want to translate it. You need to examine the instances cited to see what most closely corresponds to the usage in your text.

DMB

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/455978#Comment_455978

Much of the question has to do with 'when' and 'which language' it was written. If one assumes a much earlier dating along with earlier angelology, then the greek epi would result.

EDIT: Just saw George's answer; mine is not to imply earlier necessarily (though the syntax pattern matching does support a pre-Pauline timing very similar to greek Enoch and some of the Testiments).

Blair Laird

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/455978#Comment_455978

In agree with the translation of Rev 11:6 but look at Rev 5:10 for the same construction. Rev. 11:6 would make no sense translating it as "on" rather then "over". However, Revelation 5:10 makes a big theological point on the "where" the reign of the kings/priest will take place. However, looking at these to passages I am having a hard time reasoning the translation of "on" in Revelation 5:10 when Revelation 11:6 has the same construction. Is the only reason for translating 11:6 to "over" because it makes the most sense. Or is there some syntactical or morphological reason for doing so. Is the acc. right before "over" changing the translation somehow? I can't find resources that deal with this.

Rich DeRuiter

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/456028#Comment_456028

In agree with the translation of Rev 11:6 but look at Rev 5:10 for the same construction. Rev. 11:6 would make no sense translating it as "on" rather then "over". However, Revelation 5:10 makes a big theological point on the "where" the reign of the kings/priest will take place. However, looking at these to passages I am having a hard time reasoning the translation of "on" in Revelation 5:10 when Revelation 11:6 has the same construction. Is the only reason for translating 11:6 to "over" because it makes the most sense. Or is there some syntactical or morphological reason for doing so. Is the acc. right before "over" changing the translation somehow? I can't find resources that deal with this.

Maybe some Greek scholar can answer your question. All I know how to do is look at usage. It looks to me like the difference is with the verb basileuo (reign/be king) vs the compound verb exo exousia (have authority). Once again looking at the lemma basieuo + epi phrase, the direct objects of that rule (that over which one reigns) seem to require the genitive, while the place where one reigns is in the accusative. In other words, it looks to me like it's the verb that determines the sense, not merely the case ending in epi construction.

I'm suggesting this because some verbs function with different cases in different ways -- I think. There's something in the back of my mind that is pretty sure I learned that somewhere, but I can't be sure I'm not pulling this out of thin air. So I offer this as AVHO (a very humble opinion).

George Somsel

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/456028#Comment_456028

In agree with the translation of Rev 11:6 but look at Rev 5:10 for the same construction. Rev. 11:6 would make no sense translating it as "on" rather then "over". However, Revelation 5:10 makes a big theological point on the "where" the reign of the kings/priest will take place. However, looking at these to passages I am having a hard time reasoning the translation of "on" in Revelation 5:10 when Revelation 11:6 has the same construction. Is the only reason for translating 11:6 to "over" because it makes the most sense. Or is there some syntactical or morphological reason for doing so. Is the acc. right before "over" changing the translation somehow? I can't find resources that deal with this.

I really don't see a problem. To exercise authority over or to rule over seems very much the same. I think you're becoming too concerned with how it's translated. To the Greek ἐπί was simply ἐπί. We do much the same thing with words in English. Some words have multiple meanings, but we readily understand them (even without translating them). [;)]

Blair Laird

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/456040#Comment_456040

I really don't see a problem. To exercise authority over or to rule over seems very much the same. I think you're becoming too concerned with how it's translated. To the Greek ἐπί was simply ἐπί. We do much the same thing with words in English. Some words have multiple meanings, but we readily understand them (even without translating them).

The reason this has come up in my study, is because of some jw's that come over. They claim that those who rule in reign with Christ, do so from heaven, not earth. If Revelation 5:10 is to be translated "on" than, there is no chance of a reign from heaven. When it is translated "over" there is some wiggle room. You can reign over the earth from heaven, or you can reign on earth from earth. There is a difference.

Blair Laird

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/456033#Comment_456033

Maybe some Greek scholar can answer your question. All I know how to do is look at usage. It looks to me like the difference is with the verb basileuo (reign/be king) vs the compound verb exo exousia (have authority). Once again looking at the lemma basieuo + epi phrase, the direct objects of that rule (that over which one reigns) seem to require the genitive, while the place where one reigns is in the accusative. In other words, it looks to me like it's the verb that determines the sense, not merely the case ending in epi construction.

I'm suggesting this because some verbs function with different cases in different ways -- I think. There's something in the back of my mind that is pretty sure I learned that somewhere, but I can't be sure I'm not pulling this out of thin air. So I offer this as AVHO (a very humble opinion).

Thanks.. My assumption is that the verb in the clause has some bearing, however, I could not find that in my library. I know that epi is modified by the noun that follows, at least that is my understanding. But I am lost on how the verb modifies the preposition, if it truly does. Hopefully a greek teacher can comment, and explain how it works.. I can't believe there is nothing in my library about this.

George Somsel

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/456042#Comment_456042

The reason this has come up in my study, is because of some jw's that come over. They claim that those who rule in reign with Christ, do so from heaven, not earth. If Revelation 5:10 is to be translated "on" than, there is no chance of a reign from heaven. When it is translated "over" there is some wiggle room. You can reign over the earth from heaven, or you can reign on earth from earth. There is a difference.

It says nothing regarding the location from which authority is exercised. It only concerns that over which authority is exercised. I'm not sure that the controversy is worth the trouble.

Blair Laird

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/456052#Comment_456052

It says nothing regarding the location from which authority is exercised. It only concerns that over which authority is exercised. I'm not sure that the controversy is worth the trouble.

If Revelation 5:10 is to be translated "on" as many translations have it, then it does say something regarding the location from which authority is exercised.

"ἐπί preposition with a basic meaning on, but with a wide range of meanings according to the context; I. with the genitive emphasizing contact; (1) in answer to "where?" on"

Friberg, T., Friberg, B., & Miller, N. F. (2000). Vol. 4: Analytical lexicon of the Greek New Testament. Baker's Greek New Testament Library (162). Grand Rapids, MI: Baker Books.

Whether it makes a difference in my conversation with them is not what I am attempting to attain. I want to be able to rightly interpret the scriptures using proper exegesis. That is why I purchased my logos library, so I can be a good berean, and check what is being told to me by the word of God.

Justin Cofer

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/456057#Comment_456057

If Revelation 5:10
is to be translated "on" as many translations have it, then it does say
something regarding the location from which authority is exercised.

I am only somewhat informed as I teach a beginning Koine Greek class at my church and I hate interlinears. lol The clause in question is καὶ βασιλεύσουσιν ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς. The prepositional phrase is functioning adverbially. The object of preposition is genitive. As you noted, the majority of the translation committees (as opposed to the JW's NWT) translate it "on" or "upon."

Robertson is instructive,

[quote]

5. With the Genitive. The genitive with ἐπί has likewise a wide range of usages. Usually the simple meaning ‘upon’ satisfies all requirements,
as in ἐπὶ κλίνης (Mt. 9:2), ἐφʼ οὗ ᾠκοδόμητο (Lu. 4:29), κηρύξατε ἐπὶ
τῶν δωμάτων (Mt. 10:27), ἐρχόμενον ἐπὶ νεφελῶν (Mt. 24:30), ἔθηκεν ἐπὶ
τοῦ σταυροῦ (Jo. 19:19), καθίσας ἐπὶ τοῦ βήματος (Ac. 12:21), ἐπὶ τῆς
κεφαλῆς (Jo. 20:7), ἐπὶ τῆς θαλάσσης (Rev. 5:13), ἐπὶ ξύλου (Ac. 5:30).
In Mk. 12:26, ἐπὶ τοῦ βάτου, an ellipsis in thought occurs “in the
passage about the bush.” Sometimes, indeed, as with the accusative, so
with the genitive, ἐπί has the idea of vicinity, where the word itself
with which it is used has a wide meaning. Thus in Jo. 21:1 ἐπὶ τῆς
θαλάσσης seems to mean ‘on the sea-shore,’ and so ‘by the sea.’ So with
ἐπὶ τῆς ὁδοῦ (Mt. 21:19), the fig-tree being not on the path, but on the
edge of the road. Abbott1 notes how Matthew (14:25 f.) has ἐπὶ τὴν
θάλασσαν which is not ambiguous like the genitive in Jo. 6:19. Cf. Ac.
5:23 ἐπὶ τῶν θυρῶν. The classic idiom with ἐπί and the genitive in the
sense of ‘towards’ is not so common in the N. T., though it has not
quite disappeared as Simcox2 thinks. Cf. ἐγένετο τὸ πλοῖον ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς
(Jo. 6:21), καθιέμενον ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς (Ac. 10:11), βαλοῦσα τὸ μύρον ἐπὶ τοῦ
σώματος (Mt. 26:12), ἔπιπτεν ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς (Mk. 14:35), γενόμενος ἐπὶ τοῦ
τόπου (Lu. 22:40), τὸν ἐπʼ αὐτῆς ἐρχόμενον (Heb. 6:7), πεσὼν ἐπὶ τῆς
γῆς (Mk. 9:20). In these examples we see just the opposite tendency to
the use of the accusative with verbs of rest. Cf. πεσεῖται ἐπὶ τῆν γῆν
(Mt. 10:29) with Mk. 9:20 above and βαλεῖν ἐπὶ τὴν γῆν (Mt. 10:34) with
Mk. 4:26. With persons ἐπί and the genitive may yield the resultant
meaning of ‘before’ or ‘in the presence of.’ Thus ἐπὶ ἡγεμόνων (Mk.
13:9), κρίνεσθαι ἐπὶ τῶν ἀδίκων (1 Cor. 6:1), ἐκτὸς εἰ μὴ ἐπὶ δύο ἢ
τριῶν μαρτύρων (1 Tim. 5:19), ἐπὶ Ποντίου Πειλάτου (1 Tim. 6:13), ἐπὶ
σοῦ (Ac. 23:30), ἐπʼ ἐμοῦ (25:9). Blass observes how in Ac. 25:10 ἑστὼς
ἐπὶ τοῦ βήματος Καίσαρος the meaning is ‘before,’ while in verse 17 the
usual idea ‘upon’ is alone present (καθίσας ἐπὶ τοῦ βήματος). Cf. ἐπὶ
Τίτου in 2 Cor. 7:14. With expressions of time the result is much the
same. Thus ἐπʼ ἐσχάτου τῶν χρόνων (1 Pet. 1:20) where ἐπί naturally
occurs (cf. Ju. 18). With ἐπὶ τῶν προσευχῶν μου (Ro. 1:10) we have
period of prayer denoted simply by ἐπί. Cf. ἐπεύχομαι ἐπί (Magical
papyrus, Deissmann, Light, etc., p. 252). There is no difficulty about
ἐπὶ τῆς μετοικεσίας (Mt. 1:11). With persons a fuller exposition is
required, since ἐπὶ Κλαυδίου (Ac. 11:28) is tantamount to ‘in the time
of Claudius’ or ‘during the reign of Claudius.’ Cf. also ἐπὶ ἀρχιερέως
Ἄννα (Lu. 3:2), ἐπὶ Ἐλισαίου (4:27), ἐπὶ Ἀβιάθαρ ἀρχιερέως (Mk. 2:26).
Cf. ἐπʼ αὐτῆς in Heb. 7:11. The idea of basis is a natural metaphor as
in ἐπʼ ἀληθείας (Lu. 4:25), ἃ ἐποίει ἐπὶ τῶν ἀσθενούντων (Jo. 6:2), ὡς
ἐπὶ πολλῶν (Gal. 3:16), ἑπὶ στόματος (Mt. 18:16). One of the metaphorical uses is with the resultant idea of ‘over,’ growing naturally out of ‘upon.’
Thus καταστήσει ἐπὶ τῆς θεραπείας (Lu. 12:42), though in Mt. 25:21, 23
both genitive and accusative occur. Cf. also βασιλείαν ἐπὶ τῶν βασιλέων
(Rev. 17:18), ὁ ὤν ἐπὶ πάντων (Ro. 9:5), etc.

A. T. Robertson, A Grammar of the Greek New Testament in the Light of Historical Research (Logos Bible Software, 1919), 602-04.

Smyth notes,

[quote]

ἐπί with the gen. is colourless and phraseological, and often makes, with the verb or the subject, a compound picture.

Herbert
Weir Smyth, A Greek Grammar for Colleges (New York; Cincinnati;
Chicago; Boston; Atlanta: American Book Company, 1920), 378.

John
probably intended to communicate both the saint's authority on the earth and over it. The idea of over grows naturally out of the idea of upon. As Robertson said and I noted above,
"One of the metaphorical uses is with the resultant idea of ‘over,’
growing naturally out of ‘upon.’" To the Koine Greek reader, ἐπί meant
well, ἐπί. The Koine Greek reader didn't concern himself with how to
translate it -- he/she understood what the author said by means of
context. This is one of George's points when he says, "I think you're
becoming too concerned with how it's translated.
To the Greek ἐπί was simply ἐπί."

Although both
"over" and "on/upon" are possible translations, if a gun was put to my
head contra BDAG (as George notes above), I would side with the vast
majority of the translation committees and simply translate it "on" or
"upon." But just remember that you cant fit everything in a translation. Traduttore, traditore!

Jim Wait

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/456042#Comment_456042

epi with genitive case:upon,on,at by,before emphasizing contact.

epi with locative: upon,on, at,over, before emphasizing position

epi with accusative : upon, on, up to, to, over emphasizing motion or direction

Source : Dana and Mantey p. 106

Keep Smiling 4 Jesus :)

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/456146#Comment_456146

Keep Smiling [:)]

Justin Cofer

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/456121#Comment_456121

I would also like to add to my post above that the question at hand is the nature of the relationship in rev 5:10--something which has more to do
with the broader context of the prepositional phrase in question than with ἐπί itself.

Blair Laird

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/456151#Comment_456151

Indeed, ended up starting from the beginning with Wallace concerning the preposition. It was more helpful than the way I was going about it before. Wallace seems to lay it out in easy to understand language.

"There are
exceptions to the adverbial force of prepositions. Some function at times
adjectivally. In general, the prepositions that take accusative and dative case
objects function adverbially, while those that take a genitive case object
often function adjectivally.³
All of this is in keeping with the simple case uses: The accusative and
dative are usually connected to a verb and the genitive is usually connected to
a noun.

A proper understanding of prepositions is vital to
exegesis. Many an exegetical debate has turned on the use of a particular
preposition.⁴ One can gain
some sense of the value of learning the nuances of the prepositions by noting
their sheer number (over 10,000 of them in the NT).⁵ Prepositions are so common that four out of
five verses have at least one.⁶
In general, the more common a preposition is, the more varied are its
uses. "

^{^[1]}

³
3. Nevertheless, the prepositions that take a gen. are normally adverbial.
E.g., ἐκ and ἀπό usually have an ablatival force and
hence are usually related to a verb.

⁴ 4. The most accessible
sustained discussion of the exegetical and theological value of prepositions is
that of Harris, “Prepositions and Theology.”

⁵ 5. 10,384 to be exact
(not including improper prepositions).

⁶ 6. They occur in 5728
verses.

^{^[1]} Wallace,
D. B. (1999). Greek Grammar Beyond the
Basics - Exegetical Syntax of the New Testament (357). Zondervan Publishing
House and Galaxie Software.

I am still not sure what he means when he starts speaking about the verbs matching the prep. I am assuming he means when its found in the acc. look at the verb to help relay the motion, but again I am not sure.

"All is not as it seems, however. A stative preposition can occur with a verb of motion, just like a transitive preposition can occur with a stative verb. In such instances, how are we to interpret the data? For example, πρός + accusative indicates movement toward the object as in Luke 6:47: πᾶς ὁ ἐρχόμενος πρός με (“everyone who comes to me”). The verb and preposition match each other: they both imply motion."

Wallace, D. B. (1999). Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics - Exegetical Syntax of the New Testament (359). Zondervan Publishing House and Galaxie Software.

Still working my way through it, but this was the most helpful book I found in my library so far.

Justin Cofer

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/456157#Comment_456157

In Rev 5:10, βασιλεύσουσιν ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς, the prepositional phrase is obviously adverbial. Just look at Cascadia.

George Somsel

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/456048#Comment_456048

Thanks.. My assumption is that the verb in the clause has some bearing, however, I could not find that in my library. I know that epi is modified by the noun that follows, at least that is my understanding. But I am lost on how the verb modifies the preposition, if it truly does. Hopefully a greek teacher can comment, and explain how it works.. I can't believe there is nothing in my library about this.

I find it rather strange to hear of a preposition as being "modified" by either a noun or a verb. I would maintain that the BDAG entry which I cited is determinative here. Ἐχω ἐξουσιαν // Βασιλευω and falls under ἐπί #9 regarding power or authority. Ἐπί X would thus designate that over which the authority is exercised.

Blair Laird

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/456166#Comment_456166

I find it rather strange to hear of a preposition as being "modified" by either a noun or a verb. I would maintain that the BDAG entry which I cited is determinative here. Ἐχω ἐξουσιαν // Βασιλευω and falls under ἐπί #9 regarding power or authority. Ἐπί X would thus designate that over which the authority is exercised.

The quote from bdag does not inform me of the syntax of the preposition. It helps me with the morphology, which I understand up to the point where you have the same word with the same morphology, translated differently. Is it because of context, or syntax? That is the question I am trying to answer. I have two passages Revelation 5:10 and Revelation 11:6 both have epi with a noun genitive. Yet they are translated differently. It is clear from the context that epi translated "on" in Revelation 11:6 makes no sense, so is that why it is not translated on? Or is there a underlying syntax issue with the verb that I am missing.

George Somsel

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/456172#Comment_456172

I find it rather strange to hear of a preposition as being "modified" by either a noun or a verb. I would maintain that the BDAG entry which I cited is determinative here. Ἐχω ἐξουσιαν // Βασιλευω and falls under ἐπί #9 regarding power or authority. Ἐπί X would thus designate that over which the authority is exercised.

The quote from bdag does not inform me of the syntax of the preposition. It helps me with the morphology, which I understand up to the point where you have the same word with the same morphology, translated differently. Is it because of context, or syntax? That is the question I am trying to answer. I have two passages Revelation 5:10 and Revelation 11:6 both have epi with a noun genitive. Yet they are translated differently. It is clear from the context that epi translated "on" in Revelation 11:6 makes no sense, so is that why it is not translated on? Or is there a underlying syntax issue with the verb that I am missing.

Why should I care regarding how someone chose to translate it? The Greek clearly uses Βασιλεύω // ἔχω ἐξουσίαν followed by the preposition ἐπί with the genitive indicating the area over which authority is exercised. That should settle the question.

Justin Cofer

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/456175#Comment_456175

The Greek clearly uses Βασιλεύω // ἔχω ἐξουσίαν followed by the preposition ἐπί with the genitive indicating the area over which authority is exercised. That should settle the question.

In the case of the usage of ἐπί in the epistle of Barnabas 4:4, Βασιλεῖαι δέκα ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς βασιλεύσουσιν, which has the preposition ἐπί with the genitive followed by Βασιλεύω, BDAG classifies ἐπί with the genitive as 1.a. ἐπί, marker of location (on, upon).

Check out BDAG entry for βασιλεύω.

① to exercise authority at a royal level, be king, rule (B-D-F §177; 233, 2; 234, 5; Rob.: 801, 833, 902).
ⓐ of temporal princes τινός over (of ) someth. (1 Esdr 1:37; 6:16; 1 Macc 1:16; 11:9 al.) τῆς Ἰουδαίας Mt 2:22 of Archelaus, who was called king without having the official title (Jos., Vi. 5 βασιλεύοντος Ἀρχελάου, Ant. 17, 188ff; 317ff; 18, 93 βασιλεὺς Ἀ.); τοῦ Ἰσραήλ GJs 23:2; τῶν περάτων τῆς γῆς IRo 6:1; ἐπί τινα (Gen 37:8; 1 Km 8:9; 12:1 al.) Lk 19:14, 27.—βασιλεῖαι βασιλεύσουσιν ἐπὶ τ. γῆς royal powers will reign on (the) earth (s. ἐπί 1a) B 4:4. On βασιλεὺς τ. βασιλευόντων 1 Ti 6:15 s. βασιλεύς 2b.
ⓑ of God and those closely united w. him
α. God (Ps.-Phoc. 111) Rv 11:17; 19:6 (s. 2 below for a difft. interpr. of both pass.).
β. Christ Lk 1:33; 1 Cor 15:25; εἰς τ. αἰῶνας MPol 21.
γ. God and Christ together: their βασιλεία … βασιλεύσει (s. 1a above: B 4:4) εἰς τ. αἰῶνας τ. αἰώνων (cp. Ps 9:37) Rv 11:15.
δ. faithful Christians, who have been called to rule w. God Ro 5:17b; Rv 5:10 (ἐπὶ τ. γῆς, as 1a above); 20:4, 6; 22:5 (cp. Da 7:27).

William Arndt, Frederick W. Danker and Walter Bauer, A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature, 3rd ed. (Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 2000), 170.

George Somsel

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/456184#Comment_456184

In the case of the usage of ἐπί in the epistle of Barnabas 4:4, Βασιλεῖαι δέκα ἐπὶ τῆς γῆς βασιλεύσουσιν, which has the preposition ἐπί with the genitive followed by Βασιλεύω, BDAG classifies ἐπί with the genitive as 1.a. ἐπί, marker of location (on, upon).

I hesitate to attack the king, but here I think Danker is wrong. Βασιλεύω falls into the same Wortfeld or Semanitc Domain as ἔχω ἐξουσίαν [37.48-37.95] and would likewise designate the area over which authority is exercised.