In Gen 1:27 it says,
"So God created man in his own image,"
The word man in this case does not get a the definite article "הַ"
Although in the BHS the definite article is part of the word - הָֽאָדָם֙
In Gen 2:7 it says,
"then the Lord God formed the man of dust from the ground"
In this case the definite article is translated but again in the Hebrew text it is part of the word - הָֽאָדָם֙
I understand that in Gen 2.7 we are speaking of "Adam" the person and therefore it is proper to identify him as "The Man" signifying we are speaking of Adam.
I also understand that in Gen 1:27 "Man" is being used as a generic reference to people or mankind in general.
What I am trying to understand are the grammatical Hebrew rules (and references within Logos) used by the translators in differentiating the use of the definite article "the" in Gen 2.7 and not in Gen 1.27.
God Bless and thanks for your help.