Lemma question

Loved the recent blog post 'what's a lemma'

http://blog.logos.com/2013/01/whats-a-lemma-and-hows-it-used-in-bible-study/

But I'm confused. I did a Bible word study on the lemma from 3 different translations (ESV, Lexham SGNT, NASB) and got three different reports. Shouldn't they be the same since we're dealing with the lemma? OR . . . are the results translation specific?

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Comments

Dave Hooton

are the results translation specific?

Yes. Because these are reverse interlinears there is a relationship between the lemma and the word translating it that can be exploited. How the lemma is translated depends on context and the preferences/biases of the translators. ESV claims to be more literal and uses the least amount of English words

Gregg Farah

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/460962#Comment_460962

thank you, Dave!

JT (alabama24)

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/461275#Comment_461275

To say it in a little bit different way: If the various versions translated the Lammas the same way... They would all be the same. [:)]

The words on the outside of the ring are the words that each translation has chosen to use in various contexts to translate the same lemma.

Keep Smiling 4 Jesus :)

I did a Bible word study on the lemma from 3 different translations (ESV, Lexham SGNT, NASB) and got three different reports.

Noticed Bible Word Study (BWS) screen shots had NASB95, NIV, and ESV, which could be done in one BWS Guide with several translation sections:

Keep Smiling [:)]

Gregg Farah

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/461293#Comment_461293

thank you for the tip on multiple translation sections!