This is a segment of 1 Jn. 2:18 from the Lexham SBL edition...
| ἠκούσατε |
|
⸀ |
ὅτι |
|
ἀντίχριστος |
|
ἔρχεται |
| ἀκούω |
|
|
ὅτι |
|
ἀντίχριστος |
|
ἔρχομαι |
| VAAI2P |
|
|
CSC |
|
NNSM |
|
VPUI3S |
| to hear |
|
|
that |
|
antichrist |
|
to come |
| you have heard |
|
|
that |
|
antichrist |
|
is coming |
| 24.52 |
|
|
90.21 |
|
53.83 |
|
15.81 |
The bolded bits are interesting...53.83 and 15.81 refer to Louw-Nida lexicon entries. The entry for 53.83 ("antichrist") actually makes an interesting comment on the word 15.81 translated as "is coming"...
53.83 ἀντίχριστος, ου m: one who is opposed to Christ, in the sense of usurping the role of Christ—‘antichrist.’ καθὼς ἠκούσατε ὅτι ἀντίχριστος ἔρχεται, καὶ νῦν ἀντίχριστοι πολλοὶ γεγόνασιν ‘since you have heard that the antichrist has come, and now there are many antichrists’ 1 Jn 2:18. The term ἀντίχριστος appears to have become increasingly equivalent to a proper name as the personification of all that was opposed to and contrary to the role and ministry of Christ. **
Johannes P. Louw and Eugene Albert Nida, Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament: Based on Semantic Domains, electronic ed. of the 2nd edition. (New York: United Bible Societies, 1996). 1:542.
My question is, is there any grammatical cause for accepting the translation as it reads in the bold print of the 53.83 entry above?
