There is a tagging inconsistency in 1 John 4:2. In the NA27 Greek New Testament, the word νώσκετε is tagged as both indicative and imperative. Since the morphology is ambiguous (apart from context), I can see the logic of this dual tagging for searches, although it is hard to see how it could be anything but indicative in context. But in the NASB and ESV, the same word is tagged as imperative alone, which is not the way the NASB or ESV translate it and is also the least likely meaning.
