1 John 2:24 & 2:27 (abides)

Frank Dornik

Comparing verb tenses of "abides":

1 John 2:

24 As for you, let that abide in you which you heard from the beginning. If what you heard from the beginning abides in you, you also will abide in the Son and in the Father.

27 As for you, the anointing which you received from Him abides in you, and you have no need for anyone to teach you; but as His anointing teaches you about all things, and is true and is not a lie, and just as it has taught you, you abide in Him.

It's hard for me to see why the translators (NASB/ESV) indicate "abides" in both of the above two verses, since the verb tense is different (aorist vs. present).  How should they have clearly/accurately distinguished the tense difference?

Lee

Frank, this is the third time I noticed a question about Greek from you!

I think you must first wrap your mind around the fact that Greek and English are different languages, and work differently. Therefore, you can have an aorist tense in Greek that translates perfectly as a simple past in English, or (in many cases) not. The tenses don't always work in a one-to-one mapping, the way we might expect from a formula.

Since you are so interested in Greek, why not pick up a primer on it? If you already have some knowledge of Greek, you can go for more advanced texts. Search the forum for "Greek" and you'll probably find quite a few recommendations available on Logos and elsewhere.