Greek Morphology Lk 1:14, χαρησονται
The Greek Morphology is showing this word as a "passive" voice. I think it should be "middle" voice.
I'm a fairly new Greek student so it is likely I'm missing something. Can anyone help me out?
Thanks,
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Peace to you, Duane! *smile* Just noticed your post and noted that you have not yet received a response.... The study of Greek Koine is wonderful and involves a lot of time and pondering ...Duane Smith said:The Greek Morphology is showing this word as a "passive" voice. I think it should be "middle" voice.
I'm a fairly new Greek student so it is likely I'm missing something. Can anyone help me out?
Thanks,
Along with your Greek grammars et cetera ... what Logos Resources do you use ...
This following is NOT a Logos Resource; however, perhaps it is worth a bit of "pondering" from you ... http://www.artsci.wustl.edu/~cwconrad/docs/UndAncGrkVc.pdf
Philippians 4: 4 Rejoice in the Lord always; again I will say, Rejoice. 5 Let your reasonableness be known to everyone. The Lord is at hand..........
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Duane Smith said:
The Greek Morphology is showing this word as a "passive" voice. I think it should be "middle" voice.
I'm a fairly new Greek student so it is likely I'm missing something. Can anyone help me out?
Thanks,
Recalling my days in 1st yr classical Greek I recall the tiresome and never-ending "for himself" translation of middle verbs. Χαίρω would seem to be a good candidate for a middle much like βαπτίζω (get ones' self baptized). All instances of χαίρω in the future in the NT are tagged as passive (although that doesn't indicate that it is correctly done). It would seem, however,that there is little / no difference in significance between the active and the passive of this verb. Note Phil 4.10 Ἐχάρην δὲ ἐν κυρίῳ μεγάλως ὅτι … where the aorist passive appears. It is clearly a passive though it doesn't appear to have much of a passive significance unless one chooses to translate it as "I am made to rejoice …"
george
gfsomselיְמֵי־שְׁנוֹתֵינוּ בָהֶם שִׁבְעִים שָׁנָה וְאִם בִּגְבוּרֹת שְׁמוֹנִים שָׁנָה וְרָהְבָּם עָמָל וָאָוֶן
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Just more as an FYI rather than a direct answer to the original question... the whole idea of middle voice is debated intensely now. As one of the possible results of this debate, it could be that twenty years down the road, Koine Greek is no longer taught with a grammatical classification known as "middle voice".
All this to say: treat "middle voices" flexibly and do not be too dogmatic about it, or don't be quick to build a doctrine over it.
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