I am working on Philippians 2:1-11 and read Runge's HD Philippians commentary, where he says,
"I was teaching through Philippians when a woman asked, “Which if is this in 2:1—the one that means ‘if’ or the one that means ‘since’?” In other words, if all of these if statements are true, why not use “since” instead? After thinking about it for a moment, it became clear that Paul knew exactly what he was doing. He was drawing attention to his big idea.
Since Paul was using a Greek convention..."
I can't find anything within his Greek discourse bundle where he talks about this "Greek convention" or find a way (other than this resource) to justify what he's saying. Can somebody point me in the right direction? I'd like to use this idea in my sermon, but I would like a little more understanding before I do so.
Thanks!
Brian