Old Testament Translation question

I don't this this is the right forum but someone may direct me to someone or ones who could respond to my question about Psalm 37:23.

Some direction - Psalm 37:23 is translated by the ESV "The steps of a man are established by the LORD, when he delights in his way; though he fall, he shall not be cast headlong, for the LORD upholds his hand. My question: all translations present 'he' in "when he delights in his way" as God delighting. Why? It seems to me that it could be that the 'he' relates to the persons response to having their steps established by the Lord. THOUGHTS

Find more posts tagged with

Desktop App

Comments

Graham Criddle

all translations present 'he' in "when he delights in his way" as God delighting.

I don't see that they all do.

The NLT (bottom right) does, but the ESV (top right) seems to leave it open

The Mentor commentary (bottom left) assumes it is the Lord doing the delighting, while BCOT (top left) recognises it is ambiguous

Joe Mayden

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/1034171#Comment_1034171

Thanks for the response Graham. I have several commentaries on the Psalms and they don't spend any time on why he should refer to God and why ESV states "when he delights" and the NAS translates "And He delights in his way."

To me it makes more sense to read that I am encouraged by God establishing my steps than God being encouraged by something that He is making happen.