Hey folks, I have never studied Greek or Hebrew or anything so I am very grateful for Logos' language tools. But here's where I'm confused.
In 1 Corinthians 6.9, I see the fragment "nor men who practice homosexuality" (ESV). The study I am doing has asked us to pay attention to the verb tense. "Well I can do that!" I think. Or can I? 
So I crack open my Greek interlinear to see the following transliteration for that fragment:
"malakoi oute arsenekoitai"
Cool. So then I go look up each word in translation to see what I can learn, only to see that there is no verb "practice" in there per se. Not a problem though since I know that something can be translated accurately without necessarily including a word.
But my question is this: the translators must have come to their conclusion for a reason. So where do I go next to understand why the translators believe that the original text should be translated to include "practice" (in what appears to me to be the present tense in English).
See what I mean? Thanks in advance!
Man I love studying the Bible! What a gift from God!