Hey all! Do I have this straight, according to Leviticus? I am just making this up for the example:
- Man sells himself the year after Jubilee for, say, 50 pieces of gold. If nothing else happens, he will be redeemed come next Jubilee.
- But he prospers, so by the 30th year, he can redeem himself.
- Therefore he pays the man who owns him 20 pieces of gold, representing 1 piece of gold for the 20 years left till Jubilee.
Do I understand that correctly?
Thanks! 😊
