Confusing BDAG abbreviation use … any insights?

Richard Lyall · 2025-07-04T02:14:56+00:00

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Hi folks …

I'm unclear what is meant in the BDAG entry for πρόθεσις, εως, ἡ (προτίθημι) as shown below.

I’m studying 2 Tim 1:9, which is classified under definition 2b …that which is planned in advance, plan, purpose, resolve, will | of divine purpose

This seems to fit the meaning in 2 Tim 1:9, but it appears prefixed with “Cp.” which after scanning the abbreviation lists, seems to mean “compare”, but if so, compare with what? Or does “cp.” mean something else?

Any insights appreciated.

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MJ. Smith

In an entry, you might see:... cp. 1 Cor 15:22; Rom 5:12–19

This means: “Compare [this word/meaning/context] with 1 Corinthians 15:22 and Romans 5:12–19.”

cp. = compare It is used to indicate related or analogous material, not necessarily to imply equivalence or strict parallel.

i.e. the usage in 2 Ti 1:9 is related or analogous to the meaning b) of divine purpose

Richard Lyall

Thanks for your reply.

Yes, it's clearly an invitation to compare the current usage in 2b with 2 Tim 1:9, but this only leaves me with questions.

It seems obvious that Paul’s intended usage of πρόθεσις in 2 Tim 1:9 is exactly “that which is planned … of divine purpose” i.e. that it is precisely God’s purpose, no more or less, that has saved him and called him to a holy life, and to cement this understanding of something of divine agency, he continues that it’s not because of anything he himself has done.

So if BDAG is simply inviting us to consider 2 Tim 1:9 usage as “related or analogous material, not necessarily to imply equivalence or strict parallel” as you suggest, then that seems very odd to me.

I can’t think what else could Paul have meant here, so why not cite 2 Tim 1:9 in this section as a usage of this exact meaning, rather than merely as a comparison, suggesting it doesn’t necessarily mean exactly “that which is planned … of divine purpose”?

Furthermore, the next line down cites Eph 3:11 as belonging in the current subdivision, with the usual brief Greek citation and translation, and Eph 3:11 and 2 Tim 1:9 usages naturally seem to require the same understanding, as I read them.

I guess it’s one of those moments when we dare to disagree with these mighty tomes and form our own conclusions!

Richard Lyall

Anyone else have any thoughts?

DMB

Depends on the mss, and the translation (arguable).