Dear Logos Bible Software Editorial Team,
I am a faithful user of the Lexham English Bible and a careful student of the biblical languages, and I am writing with a focused scholarly question regarding the LEB's italics convention.
The LEB preface explains that words supplied by the translators without a direct equivalent in the original language text are marked in italics, and that a note is included in cases where the need for the supplied word is less clear. I have been studying this convention closely, and I have three specific questions I would appreciate your help with.
First, does the LEB's italics system distinguish between two fundamentally different reasons a word may need to be supplied? The first reason is grammatical: the original language encodes certain information structurally — through verb endings, and case constructions — that English must make explicit with a separate word. The second reason is contextual or interpretive: the word is not grammatically implied by the source text, but has been supplied on the basis of discourse logic, rhetorical inference, or cross-textual reasoning. These are meaningfully different categories, and I would like to know whether the LEB's convention accounts for this distinction anywhere in its editorial documentation.
A concrete example that prompted this question is Luke 8:18, where the word "more" appears in italics without a footnote. Examining the SBLGNT — the LEB's stated New Testament textual base — I found no Greek word corresponding to "more" at that point in the text. The word does appear in the Synoptic parallels in Matthew 13:12 and Mark 4:25, which suggests it was supplied through cross-textual reasoning rather than from Luke's own grammatical structure. By the preface's own standard, this would appear to be a less obvious supply that warrants a note — yet none is provided.
Second, has the italics convention been applied with documented consistency across the entire translation? Specifically, is there an internal editorial stylesheet or guideline that governed these decisions, and is that document available for scholarly reference?
Third, and perhaps most precisely: given that some grammatically implied words may simultaneously be contextually obvious, has the editorial team accounted for cases where these two categories overlap? Is it possible that a word falling into both categories was placed in the unexplained group on the basis of perceived obviousness alone, even though it is also grammatically recoverable from the source text — and conversely, that a contextually supplied word received a footnote simply because a particular translator found it less intuitive? Understanding how the editorial process handled this overlap would be of considerable help to readers working closely alongside the Greek and Hebrew texts.
I raise these questions not as criticism but as a genuine scholarly inquiry. The LEB is a valuable resource precisely because of its commitment to transparency with the original language texts, and a clearer account of the italics convention would make it significantly more useful for readers who depend on it for close textual study.
Thank you sincerely for your time and for the considerable work that has gone into producing the LEB. I look forward to your response.
Respectfully,Kind regards In Christ Kgothatso