Clarification help

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Charles Donnelly | Forum Activity | Posted: Wed, Nov 28 2018 6:14 PM

just had a question about these 2 paragraphs and wonder if they sort of contradict each other? I know a commentary isnt scripture but wasnt sure if Im misunderstanding the author. His point in the first paragraph seems to say there was no more conflict between rich and poor anymore  while the second seems to say poor believers were intimidated by the rich. Am I mistaken in this?   Thanks ;) 

Date of Writing Many scholars feel the Book of James is one of the earlier New Testament writings. Three features suggest an early date. FIRST, James described a large gap between the rich and the poor (5:1–6). When the war against Rome broke out in A.D. 66, the rich suffered great losses, and conflict between rich and poor ceased. The impact of this observation pushes the writing to an earlier time rather than later. SECOND, the church organization mentioned in James seems undeveloped as seen in the mention only of elders as church leaders (5:14). THIRD, Christians were fervently expecting the return of Christ (5:7–9). It is felt that such fervor would be more true of the initial generations of Christians. All of these features support the acceptance of an earlier date. Recipients The address of the Epistle of James to “the twelve tribes scattered among the nations” (Jas 1:10) suggests that the readers were Jewish Christians who lived outside of Palestine. Several features confirm the truth of the suggestion. FIRST, the term for “meeting” (2:2) is the Greek word for “synagogue.” The word does not suggest that the readers met in a Jewish synagogue, but it indicates that Jewish Christians used this name to describe their place of meeting. SECOND, the statements of 5:1–6 present the picture of poor believers being intimidated by the wealthy. These rich people may have attended church meetings (2:1–3), but their presence did not indicate conversion. THIRD, the term “scattered among the nations” (1:1) reflects a single Greek word that referred to Jews who lived out of their homeland. All of these facts suggest that the Lord’s brother directed a message to Jewish believers who had left their native country of Palestine.
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MJ. Smith | Forum Activity | Replied: Wed, Nov 28 2018 7:03 PM

Charles Donnelly:
Am I mistaken in this? 

Isn't the author laying out the arguments for particular positions - in the first case "All of these features", in the second "all of these facts". In the first the relationship between rich/poor is AFTER 66 A.D. but in supporting an early date for James, isn't he suggesting BEFORE 66 A.D. especially since some place the death of James in 62 AD? So I see no contradiction. 

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Charles Donnelly | Forum Activity | Replied: Wed, Nov 28 2018 7:09 PM

Thanks...i need to look at it again to see if i took 2 different contexts and put them together. i will look at it again through the lens of what you said.

Thanks again

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J. Remington Bowling | Forum Activity | Replied: Wed, Nov 28 2018 8:34 PM

Right, the argument is:

1. After 66 AD there was little conflict between the rich and the poor. 

2. James was written during a period of conflict between the rich and the poor.

3. Ergo, James was likely written before 66 AD.

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