Hi, I am trying, without sucess to understand the difference between a "future active indicative" and a "aorist imperative."
TIA
Weekly bump for attention 10
Hi, I am trying, without sucess to understand the difference between a "future active indicative" and a "aorist imperative." TIA
I’m no expert, just an everyday Greek user. Between these two tenses and moods the difference seems to be relatively clear. “You will do” (future active indicative) vs. “do” (aorist imperative). The future active indicative denotes a prediction, where as the aorist imperative denotes a command or a petition?
For example, Matthew 8:8 (“Only say the word, and my servant will be healed”) has the future passive indicative, which Luke (Luke 7: 7) has changed into aorist imperative (“Say the word, and let my servant be healed”). This makes Davies & Allison ask: “Has Matthew turned a petition into a prediction?”
Why do you think certain authors used different verbiages to portray the same thoughts Olli?
A quick reply: At least, not to avoid pagiarism... [;)]
Seriously: From what I was taught, the reasons could be myriad: different oral tradition, redaction done by the evangelist to emphasize some theological aspect, different kind of translation of the original aramaic etc. etc.
In this particular case, I haven't got the slightest clue. Ought to delve into it, haven't got the time... Now it's time for baby-Jesus, not the adult one, at least for us pastors. I quess Christmas is coming!
This is a question for your Greek professors, especially those with extensive knowledge of the manuscript traditions. Not to mention that all potential answers are speculation - the interest is in the justifications for the potential answers.
