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Posts 184
Manuel Maria | Forum Activity | Posted: Tue, Nov 26 2019 11:00 AM

Hello:

Deut 17:13 states:  וְכָל־הָעָ֖ם יִשְׁמְע֣וּ וְיִרָ֑אוּ

so the subject (וְכָל־הָעָ֖ם) is singular, but the verbs are plural. Is there any explanation about this?

Thank you very much.

Posts 840
Jack Hairston | Forum Activity | Replied: Tue, Nov 26 2019 1:50 PM

If you consider "people" singular, and expected a singular verb, would it be like saying, "It will hear"?

The plural verb would be understood as "They will hear" wouldn't it?

Posts 184
Manuel Maria | Forum Activity | Replied: Tue, Nov 26 2019 2:10 PM

Thank you, Jack:

I've just found it is a 'collective noun', and eventhough it is singular, it can be used with plural verbs:

2. Singular nouns which include in themselves a collective idea (§ 123 a), or which occasionally have a collective sense (§ 123 b), may readily, in accordance with their meaning, be construed with the plural of the predicate,

GESENIUS, F. W., Gesenius’ Hebrew grammar (ed. E. KAUTZSCH – S. A. E. COWLEY) (Oxford 2d English ed.1910) 462.

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