Hello:
Deut 17:13 states: וְכָל־הָעָ֖ם יִשְׁמְע֣וּ וְיִרָ֑אוּso the subject (וְכָל־הָעָ֖ם) is singular, but the verbs are plural. Is there any explanation about this?
Thank you very much.
If you consider "people" singular, and expected a singular verb, would it be like saying, "It will hear"?
The plural verb would be understood as "They will hear" wouldn't it?
Thank you, Jack:
I've just found it is a 'collective noun', and eventhough it is singular, it can be used with plural verbs:
2. Singular nouns which include in themselves a collective idea (§ 123 a), or which occasionally have a collective sense (§ 123 b), may readily, in accordance with their meaning, be construed with the plural of the predicate, GESENIUS, F. W., Gesenius’ Hebrew grammar (ed. E. KAUTZSCH – S. A. E. COWLEY) (Oxford 2d English ed.1910) 462.