Expositor's Greek Testament question

I have a question, that I think can only be answered by someone who has the print copy. Looking at 1 Timothy 3:2, "husband of one wife," my commentary by Expositor's has him saying this, "What is here forbidden is digamy under any circumstances."
But when reading Wuest's commentary, he quotes this same line from Expositor's and says this, "What is here forbidden is bigamy under any circumstances." Now that is a big difference in meaning. So which is correct? Is this a misquote by Wuest, or is this a typo in my LOGOS edition of Expositor's?
Thank you in advance.
Comments
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My print edition (reprinted 1988) also has digamy.
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Digamy looks to be the correct reading.
digamy means a second marriage after the first is terminated by divorce or death (death in this case would not apply considering 1 Cor. 7); bigamy being married to two individuals at the same time, whether both know or not.
I would think the text could have both in mind. The text is literally "a man of one woman or a one woman man" it could be a prohibition against polygamy (definately), some say divorced men cannot hold positions- I would tend to include both- with the caveat that the divorced man should be examined carefully, all circumsatnces should be considered, meaning if he has been in "several marriages" and they have all failed- I think he would be disqualified from the position of elder, he is unable to even manage a relationship with his wife, it would be difficult I believe for him to manage the numerous relationships that would be required in the position as elder- and romance is not even involved [:O]. MHO
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Cool word to add to my vocabulary. Thanks
Orthodox Bishop Alfeyev: "To be a theologian means to have experience of a personal encounter with God through prayer and worship."; Orthodox proverb: "We know where the Church is, we do not know where it is not."
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