A theological question on marriage, Divorce and the unity of two flesh

Landon Brake · July 2017

Hey Everyone, So Ive been really reading on marriage and divorce and there is a question I cannot find an answer to or comprehend. I was wondering if anyone would have any input on this question. So first the question is Can God forgive and break the unity between one flesh outside of death. So to elaborate that question we see that God says in Mark 10:8 ⁸and the two shall become one flesh; so they are no longer two, but one flesh." As we know this is supposed to be applied in marriage. So say for instance a person were to wrongly divorce and get remarried and commits adultery as a couple scriptures state Matthew 19:9 "And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery." Matthew 5:32 "But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, makes her the victim of adultery, and anyone who marries a divorced woman commits adultery." Luke 16:18 "Anyone who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery, and the man who marries a divorced woman commits adultery."

It seems as if the adultery is associated to the fact that the husband and wife are one, thus the partner going to another partner commits adultery as the original has not died.

Okay so say the person marries from a wrong place of divorce and commits adultery, well I have heard many times were people in this case have said that God can forgive them of re-marring and that God would not hold them accountable for that. So going back to the question is How can God forgive them of the adultery if only death separates one flesh? Romans 7:1-3 "Or do you not know, brethren (for I am speaking to those who know the law), that the law has jurisdiction over a person as long as he lives? ²For the married woman is bound by law to her husband while he is living; but if her husband dies, she is released from the law concerning the husband. ³So then, if while her husband is living she is joined to another man, she shall be called an adulteress; but if her husband dies, she is free from the law, so that she is not an adulteress though she is joined to another man.

³⁹A wife is bound as long as her husband lives; but if her husband is dead, she is free to be married to whom she wishes, only in the Lord. 1 Corinthians 7:39

The bible even goes as far to tell us that Jesus had to die on the cross so that through His death we could separate from the law and be married to Christ. Romans 7:4 “Therefore, my brethren, you also were made to die to the Law through the body of Christ, so that you might be joined to another, to Him who was raised from the dead, in order that we might bear fruit for God.”

So to conclude this, how can God forgive adultery committed from wrongful divorce and remarriage and severe the bond that only death can separate between the two flesh becoming one seeing that Jesus had to go to death to separate us from the law? Also If only death can separate then does that mean a man/woman remarried that's committing adultery commits that everyday they are married for the rest of their marriage or is it a one time adultery?

DAL · July 2017

Super loaded and reloaded question hehehe; however, you will get sent to www.christiandiscourse.com to ask that, so might as well repost there. I know the answer myself based on my convictions, but others might disagree so better not open up a can of worms here 😁

DAL

EastTN · July 2017

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/913579#Comment_913579

In terms of how you might want to explore the question in Logos, I'd suggest that you might want to look at the meaning of the term Jesus uses for "divorce" in Matt. 19:9, Matt. 5:32, and Luke 16:18. Does it refer to the severing of the marriage bond, or to a ceremony or legal action? What is the significance, if any, of HIs using that particular word? Then you might want to look at the OT background on the question. Deut. 24:1-4 is particularly interesting. Why would remarriage to the original husband be an "abomination"? In what sense is she "defiled"? Is it because of the second marriage, or because of the first husband shaming her by sending her away? You might also want to explore the situation Paul is addressing in 1 Cor. 7:12-15, and how it integrates with the situation Christ is addressing. What does "bondage" mean in this context? Bondage to what?

My sense is that recent commentators are all over the place on this, and I don't know what conclusions you'll end up drawing. But I think these are at least some of questions that it would be useful to research.