Differences in Greek texts

I ran across something interesting when looking for the original Greek word used in Mark 1:41

Mark 1:41 New International Version (NIV) - Jesus was indignant.[a] He reached out his hand and touched the man. “I am willing,” he said. “Be clean!”

Mark 1:41 New American Standard Bible (NASB) - 41 Moved with compassion, Jesus stretched out His hand and touched him, and *said to him, “I am willing; be cleansed.”

When I clicked on compassion in the NASB in my Logos software, it gives me. ὀργισθεὶς as the Greek word referencing the Strongs 3710 -

3710. ὀργίζω orgízō; fut. orgísō, from orgḗ (3709), wrath. To make angry, provoke. In the NT, only in the mid. / pass. orgízomai, aor. orgísthēn, to be or become angry^{^[1]}

However, looking at several other Greek Bibles I find a totally different Greek word used. σπλαχνισθείς

With a different Strongs #4697

4697. σπλαγχνίζομαι splagchnízomai; fut., splagchnisthḗsomai, pass. deponent from splágchnon (4698), bowel. To feel deeply or viscerally, to yearn, have compassion, pity. Used in an absolute sense (Matt. 20:34; Mark 1:41; Luke 10:33; 15:20).^{^[1]}

There is probably a very simple explanation, but it causes me concern as my Bible of choice is the NASB95 and I rely heavily on simply right-clicking a word to get the original Greek or Hebrew. Now I am concerned that I may need to look at other Greek texts to get an accurate result. I would appreciate any feed back. I am not a scholar by any means, but have been a Bible study leader for many years and use the inductive study method and have a basic understanding of how to use the Logos software.

Thank you in advance.
Diana

^{^[1]} Zodhiates, S. (2000). The complete word study dictionary: New Testament (electronic ed.). Chattanooga, TN: AMG Publishers.

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Comments

Graham Criddle

Hi Diana

The reason you are seeing this is that the NASB95 is aligned to the SBL Greek New Testament, which has the Greek word you found in the reverse interlinear.

This is discussed at https://community.logos.com/forums/p/144284/906317.aspx#906317 but I don’t have any further insight as to why this Greek text was used.

So it is accurate but is using a different text to the ones you checked.

DMB

when looking for the original Greek word used in Mark 1:41

Adding to Graham's comments, the verse itself has several manuscript differences (variants), with the bulk showing 'compassion', while some 'western' manuscripts showing 'anger'. The theory for now using the anger manuscripts, is that it's unlikely to be later error, and therefore more likely to be earlier (more correct). The Lexham greek chooses this route (over-simplifying, of course).

But your issue ....

If you had used the earlier NASB95 in Logos, you would not have noticed any problem. The NASB95 greek for have-compassion points to Strongs 4697 (matches). When they did the NASB95 reverse-interlinears, their in-house greek used the angry variant (and Strongs 3710).

David Thomas

Now I am concerned that I may need to look at other Greek texts to get an accurate result. I would appreciate any feed back.

When I use the "inductive study method" one of the earliest steps is to "establish the text" (What does the text actually say before I can figure out what it means?) A quick part of this for me is checking the notes in the NET Bible NOTES for TC (textual criticism) hints that there is a question. Here is the sample on Mark 1:41

74 tc The reading found in almost the entire NT ms tradition is σπλαγχνισθείς (splanchnistheis, “moved with compassion”). Codex Bezae (D), {1358}, and a few Latin MSS (a ff2 r1*) here read ὀργισθείς (ojrgistheis, “moved with anger”). It is more difficult to account for a change from “moved with compassion” to “moved with anger” than it is for a copyist to soften “moved with anger” to “moved with compassion,” making the decision quite difficult. B. M. Metzger (TCGNT 65) suggests that “moved with anger” could have been prompted by 1:43, “Jesus sent the man away with a very strong warning.” It also could have been prompted by the man’s seeming doubt about Jesus’ desire to heal him (v. 40). As well, it is difficult to explain why scribes would be prone to soften the text here but not in Mark 3:5 or 10:14 (where Jesus is also said to be angry or indignant). Thus, in light of diverse MSS supporting “moved with compassion,” and at least a plausible explanation for ὀργισθείς as arising from the other reading, it is perhaps best to adopt σπλαγχνισθείς as the original reading. Nevertheless, a decision in this case is not easy. For the best arguments for ὀργισθείς, however, see M. A. Proctor, “The ‘Western’ Text of Mark 1:41: A Case for the Angry Jesus” (Ph.D. diss., Baylor University, 1999).

Biblical Studies Press, The NET Bible First Edition Notes (Biblical Studies Press, 2006), Mk 1:41.

Diana Hermann

https://community.logos.com/discussion/comment/1096314#Comment_1096314

Thank you so much for your response. This is very helpful and provides the information I needed. I now know where else to look when checking original language. I very much appreciate your time.

Diana